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Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Solutions Unit 4 British Economic Policies in India (1757-1857 A.D.) Objective Questions.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class History Unit 4 British Economic Policies in India (1757-1857 A.D.) Objective Questions

Multiple Choice Questions with Answers

Question 1.
According to which historian it is known that “the village groups of small republics used the necessary goods properly and enjoyed it”?
(a) Elphinstone
(b) H. G Wells
(c) Lord Acton
(d) Henry Adams
Answer:
(a) Elphinstone

Question 2.
Which system was famous in the village industry?
(a) Iron industry
(b) Gold industry
(c) Cloth weaving
(d) Wood Industry
Answer:
(c) Cloth weaving

Question 3.
For which raw material India was famous in the world?
(a) Coffee
(b) Tobacco
(c) Cotton
(d) Jute
Answer:
(c) Cotton

Question 4.
In ancient times which country’s emperors and empresses prefer to use Indian Muslim and velvet clothes?
(a) Arab
(b) China
(c) Greek
(d) Egypt
Answer:
(d) Egypt

Question 5.
After victory in the battle of Plassey the English people at first captured which region?
(a) Bengal
(b) Punjab
(c) Odisha
(d) Maharastra
Answer:
(a) Bengal

Question 6.
At first in which country of the world machinery industrial system took place?
(a) France
(b) England
(c) German
(d) China
Answer:
(b) England

Question 7.
When flying shuttle invented in England?
(a) 1757 A.D.
(b) 1758 A.D.
(c) 1760 A.D.
(d) 1764 A.D.
Answer:
(c) 1760 A.D.

Question 8.
When the steam engine was invented at England?
(a) 1760 A.D.
(b) 1764 A.D.
(c) 1768 A.D.
(d) 1770 A.D.
Answer:
(c) 1768 A.D.

Question 9.
To see the misfortune of the weavers of India which Governor-general has said “Such type of distress is rarely available in history. The skeleton of the Indian weavers make the plain lands white”?
(a) Lord Wellesley
(b) Lord William Bentick
(c) Lord Ripon
(d) Lord Curzon
Answer:
(b) Lord William Bentick

Question 10.
At the time of the English administration which Governor-general introduced permanent settlement?
(a) Lord Clive
(b) Lord Wellesley
(c) Lord Cornwallis
(d) Lord Dalhousie
Answer:
(c) Lord Cornwallis

Question 11.
In 1780 which Governor-general has given the calculation that “In every year gold costing value of 40 lakh rupees supplied to England”?
(a) Lord Cornwallis
(b) Lord Wellesley
(c) Lord William Bentick
(d) Lord Waren Hastings
Answer:
(d) Lord Waren Hastings

Question 12.
By whose reference Lord Cornwallis introduced permanent settlement?
(a) Captain Reed
(b) Sir John Shore
(c) Thomas Munroe
(d) Henry Mekenjee
Answer:
(b) Sir John Shore

Question 13.
In which year Lord Cornwallis introduced permanent settlement in India?
(a) 1790 A.D.
(b) 1781 A.D.
(c) 1793 A.D.
(d) 1757 A.D.
Answer:
(a) 1793 A.D.

Question 14.
In the reign of which Governor general for the first time Railway system prevailed in India?
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Lord William Bentick
(c) Lord Dalhousie
(d) Lord Curzon
Answer:
(c) Lord Dalhousie

Question 15.
When world’s first passenger Railway line inaugurated in England?
(a) 1757 A.D.
(b) 1795 A.D.
(c) 1805 A.D.
(d) 1825 A.D.
Answer:
(d) 1825 A.D.

Question 16.
Which England personality made wakeful to English government that “If the railway system began in India then a massive rise of the economy in England”?
(a) Roland Macdonald Stephenson
(b) Nikolson
(c) Sir Lawrence
(d) Sir John Shore
Answer:
(a) Roland Macdonald-Stephenson

Question 17.
In which year did railway line work began and accelerated in India?
(a) 1830 A.D.
(b) 1850A.D.
(c) 1852 A.D.
(d) 1853 A.D.
Answer:
(a) 1850 A.D.

Question 18.
In which year was the railway line of India and the entire Asia continent inaugurated?
(a) 1852 A.D.
(b) 1840 A.D.
(c) 1851 A.D.
(d) 1853 A.D.
Answer:
(a) 1853 A.D.

Question 19.
Railway line inaugurated in India connected which two places?
(a) Bombay to Thane
(b) Pune to Bombay
(c) Bombay to Delhi
(d) Kolkata to Raniganj
Answer:
(a) Bombay to Thane

Question 20.
When telegraph line installed in India?
(a) 1850A.D.
(b) 1852 A.D.
(c) 1853 A.D.
(d) 1866 A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1852 A.D.

Question 21.
For the prevailing telegraph system in India which scientific engineer took charge?
(a) Sir John shore
(b) Sir Rutherford
(c) Sir O.Sanesi
(d) Sir Stephenson
Answer:
(c) Sir O.Sanesi

Question 22.
At the time of Dalhousie’s departure from India how many miles of telegraph line were installed?
(a) 2000 miles
(b) 3000 miles
(c) 4000 miles
(d) 5000 miles
Answer:
(c) 4000 miles

Question 23.
By 1840 which gifted man introduced in England the system of Penny postage?
(a) Sir Roland Hill
(b) Sir John Shore
(c) Sir Rutherford
(d) Sir O.Sanesi
Answer:
(a) Sir Roland Hill

Question 24.
In which year the half-penny postal system permitted by the English government in India?
(a) 1850A.D.
(b) 1852 A.D.
(c) 1845 A.D.
(d) 1860A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1852 A.D.

Question 25.
Which Governor-general prevailed postal system in India?
(a) Lord Cornwallis
(b) Lord Hastings
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) Lord Dalhousie
Answer:
(d) Lord Dalhousie

Question 26.
When Lord Dalhousie prevailed new postal system?
(a) 1850 AD.
(b) 1852 A.D.
(c) 1853 A.D.
(d) 1854 A.D.
Answer:
(d) 1854 A.D.

Question 27.
To whom importance was given in the Rayatwari land revenue system?
(a) Village Committee
(b) Government
(c) Cultivator
(d) Landlord
Answer:
(c) Cultivator

Question 28.
In which region Rayatwari system first introduced?
(a) Madras, Bombay, East Punjab & Assam
(b) Bengal and Bihar
(c) Odisha & Madhyapradesh
(d) Uttarpradesh
Answer:
(a) Madras, Bombay, East Punjab & Assam

Question 29.
When Mahalwari system introduced in India?
(a) 1832 A.D.
(b) 1833 A.D.
(c) 1852 A.D.
(d) 1857 A.D.
Answer:
(a) 1833 A.D.

Question 30.
At the time of which Governor-general Mahalwari system was introduced?
(a) Lord Cornwallis
(b) Lord Warren Hastings
(c) Lord William Bentick
(d) Lord Curzon
Answer:

Question 31.
In India, in which region Mahalwari system came into force?
(a) Agra and Ayodhya
(b) Bombay and Thane
(e) Bombay and Pune
(d) Delhi and Ghaziabad
Answer:
(a) Agra and Ayodhya

Question 32.
Which personality is involved in the Mahalwari system?
(a) Thomas Munroe
(b) Holt Mekengi
(c) Warren Hastings
(d) Sir Hobbes
Answer:
(b) Holt Mekengi

Question 33.
Which type of revenue system prevailed in the Ottawa district of Uttar Pradesh?
(a) Talukdari system
(b) Mahalwari system
(c) Rayatwari system
(d) Permanent settlement
Answer:
(a) Talukdari system

Question 34.
Which European country exempted import duty on Indian clothes?
(a) England
(b) France
(c) Holland
(d) Spain
Answer:
(c) Holland

Question 35.
For the development of which cultivation the court of Directors has sent American – experts to India?
(a) Tea
(b) Wheat
(c) Oil seeds
(d) Cotton
Answer:
(d) Cotton

Question 36.
Novelist Bankim Chandra Chaterjee has given information regarding “saint rebellion” in which of his book?
(a) Eminent Indian struggle
(b) Anand Math
(c) External flow of wealth
(d) Jaganana
Answer:
(b) Anand Math

Question 37.
How many saints were Saint in Bengal for which the “Saint rebellion” began in force?
(a) 140
(b) 130
(c) 150
(d) 120
Answer:
(c) 150

Question 38.
Khurda revolt is known in which other name?
(a) Paika revolt
(b) Cultivator revolt
(c) Saint revolt
(d) Rayat revolt
Answer:
(a) Paika revolt

Question 39.
When English government confiscated the wealth of Buxi Jagabandhu?
(a) 1813 A.D.
(b) 1814 A.D.
(c) 1803 A.D.
(d) 1824 A.D.
Answer:
(a) 1813 A.D.

Question 40.
Who was the king of Puri at the time of the Khurda revolt?
(a) Mukunda Deva
(b) End Mukunda DeVa
(c) Prataprudra Deva
(d) Rudrasena
Answer:
(b) End Mukunda Deva.

Question 41.
By which law of the East India Company the Santals were debarred to collect jungle products?
(a) Charter law of 1713
(b) Charter law of 1733
(c) Jungle Law
(d) Land settlement law
Answer:
(c) Jungle Law

Question 42.
In which area of the Sahibganj districts the English traders got permission for trade?
(a) Rajmahal
(b) Buzar
(c) Plassey
(d) Wadh
Answer:
(a) Rajmahal

Question 43.
Leader of Santala revolt Siddhu Murmu belongs to which village?
(a) Rajrnahal
(b) Santaladiha
(c) Bhagnadiha
(d) Pabnagrama
Answer:
(c) Bhagnadiha

Question 44.
After how many years Sepoy mutiny of 1857 took place?
(a) Hundred years
(b) One hundred fifty years
(c) Fifty years
(d) Two hundred years
Answer:
(a) Hundred years

Question 45.
Who was the Governor-general of India at the time of the 1857 Sepoy mutiny?
(a) Lord Wellesley
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord William Bentick
(d) Lord Canning
Ans.
(d) Lord Canning

Question 46.
Which Governor-general adopted the “Doctrine of Lapse” policy in order to assimilate local states into the English empire?
(a) Lord Wellesley
(b) Lord William Bentick
(c) Lord Dalhousie
(d) Lord Canning
Answer:
(c) Lord Daihousie

Question 47.
Who was the Mughal Emperor by name at the time of Sepoy’s mutiny?
(a) Bahadur Saha I
(b) Bahadur Saha II
(c) Saha Alam U
(d) Farook Sayar
Answer:
(b) Bahadur Saha II

Question 48.
Which policy of Dalhousie made revenge to the local emperors against the British administration?
(a) Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Subsidiary Alliance
(c) Permanent Settlement
(d) Military Law
Answer:
(a) Doctrine of Lapse

Question 49.
Which policy of Lord Wellesley made the Indian emperor’s revolt oriented?
(a) Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Subsidiary Alliance
(c) Permanent Settlement
(d) Mahalwari system
Answer:
(b) Subsidiary Alliance

Question 50.
Which Governor general ousted the “Sad system” from India?
(a) Lord Dalhousie
(b) Lord Ripon
(e) Lord William Bentick
(d) Lord Canning
Answer:
(e) Lord William Bentick

Question 51.
At the time of which Governor-general widow remarriage act was introduced in India?
(a) Lord Canning
(b) Lord William Bentick
(e) Lord Curzon
(d) Lord Dalhousie
Answer:
(d) Lord Dalhousie

Question 52.
In which Governor-general time the conyentçI Chjjstians got the property right according to law?
(a) Lord William Bentick
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Weilselley
(d) Lord Canning
Answer:
(b) Lord Dathousie

Question 53.
For which incident the course of the Sepoy mutiny sparked off immediately?
(a) Widow’s remarriage
(b) Oust of “Sati” system
(e) Prevailing of Enfield rifle
(d) Prevalence of English language
Answer:
(c) Prevailing of Enfield rifle

Question 54.
When Lord William Bentick prevailed in English education in India?
(a) 1854 A.D.
(b) 1855 A.D.
(e) 1834 A.D.
(d) 1835 A.D.
Answer:
(d) 1835 A.D.

Question 55.
Who propounded the concept of the “Drain of wealth”?
(a) Dadabhai Naroji
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Gopal Krushna Gokhale
(d) Surendranath Baneijee
Answer:
(a) Dadabhai Naroji

Question 56.
Who was the first martyr of the Sepoy mutiny?
(a) Mangal Pandey
(b) Laxmi Bai
(c) Nana Saheb
(d) Tantia Tope
Answer:
(a) Mangal Pandey

Question 57.
By the beginning of 1857 was the first sign of revolt begun among the sepoys?
(a) Kanpur
(b) Barakpur
(c) Jhansi
(d) Lucknow
Answer:
(b) Barakpur

Question 58.
In May 10 of 1857 where the manifested system of revolt begun?
(a) Meerut
(b) Kanpur
(c) Gwalior
(d) Jhansi
Answer:
(a) Meerut

Question 59.
The revells captured the Mughal palace and to whom they declared as the emperor of India.
(a) Bahadur Saha I
(b) Bahadur Saha II
(c) SahaAlamll
(d) Kanwar Singh V
Answer:
(b) Bahadur Saha II

Question 60.
In Bihar, the Revolt of 1857 was laid by which of the following rebels?
(a) Tantia Tope
(b) Kanwar Singh
(c) Nana Saheb
(d) Rani Laxmibai
Answer:
(b) Kanwar Singh

Question 61.
Who provided the immediate spark to the Revolt of 1857?
(a) Mangal Pandey
(b) Rani Laxmibai
(c) Surendra Sai
(d) Tantia Tope
Answer:
(a) Mangal Pandey

Question 62.
When does the spark begin by Mangal Pandey in the Revolt?
(a) 1857 February 27
(b) 1857 March 29
(c) 1857 May 11
(d) 1857 September 21
Answer:
(b) 1857 March 29

Question 63.
Which rebeller was in charge of the Kanpur center?
(a) Kanwar Singh
(b) Tantia Tope
(c) Nana Saheb
(d) Laxman Singh
Answer:
(c) Nana Saheb

Question 64.
The rebellons declared whom as the “Peshwa of war”?
(a) Nana Saheb
(b) Mangal Pandey
(c) Kanwar Singh
(d) Tantia Tope
Answer:
(a) Nana Saheb

Question 65.
At Gwalior which veteran took charge of the leadership of twenty thousand rebellions?
(a) Nana Saheb
(b) Tantia Tope
(c) Kanwar Sing
(d) Bira Surendra Sai
Answer:
(b) Tantia Tope

Question 66.
Which English commander protected Tantia Tope but adorned defeat?
(a) Nikolson
(b) Campbell
(c) Windham
(d) Hyavlec
Answer:
(c) Windham

Question 67.
At the time of revolt when the failure of Delhi occurred which able administrator was the governor of Punjab?
(a) Lord Elphinstone
(b) Sir Kolin Campbell
(c) Sir John Lawrence
(d) Sir Outram
Answer:
(c) Sir John Lawrence

Question 68.
At the time of revolt acceleration which clever governor made calm to the Bombay Presidency?
(a) Lond Elphinstone
(b) Lord Outram
(c) Sir Colin Campbell
(d) Sir John Lawrence
Answer:
(a) Lord Elphinstone

Question 69.
Which brave English commander came from Punjab to Delhi and blew up the famous Kashmir Tower of Delhi?
(a) Campbell
(b) Hyavolec
(c) Nicholson
(d) Lawrence
Answer:
(c) Nicholson

Question 70.
Which English commander shot dead two sons and a grandson of Bahadur Sahan?
(a) Hudson
(b) Nicholson
(c) Campbell
(d) Hyavlee
Answer:
(a) Hudson

Question 71.
Who was in charge of the sepoy mutiny at Jhansi?
(a) Surendra Sai
(b) Nana Saheb
(c) Rani Laxmibai
(d) Kanwar Singh
Answer:
(c) Rani Laxmibai

Question 72.
Which English historian has given comments regarding the murder of the son and grandson of Bahadur Saha II “A more brutal or a more unnecessary outrage was never committed? It was a blunder as well as a crime”?
(a) Malleson
(b) David Hannay
(c) William Fraser
(d) John Bigland
Answer:
(a) Malleson

Question 73.
When is Rani Laxmibai dead on the battlefield while fighting on horseback in the dress of a man?
(a) March 29, 1857
(b) May 10, 1857
(c) June 17, 1858
(d) November 1, 1858
Answer:
(c) June 17, 1858

Question 74.
Mostly in all the restrained areas of India revolt dominated in spite of Sambalpur of Odisha. For how many more years it continued?
(a) 2 years
(b) 3 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 5 years
Answer:
(c) 4 years

Question 75.
Who was the leader of the Odisha Sepoy mutiny?
(a) Jagabandhu Singh
(b) Gopabandhu Das
(c) Nilakantha Das
(d) Bira Surendra Sai
Answer:
(d) Bira Surendra Sai

Question 76.
Which English commander has given an opinion about Rani Laxmibai that “She is the most vigilant and brave military except among the leaders of revolt”?
(a) Sir hiue Rose
(b) Sir Hiue Gao
(c) Nicholson
(d) Campbell
Answer:
(b) Sir Hiue Gao

Question 77.
When the Indian Administration Act was passed In England Parliament?
(a) 1857 A.D.
(b) 1858 A.D.
(ç) 1859 A.D.
(d) 1860 AD.
Answer:
(d) 1858 A.D.

Question 78.
When did East India company’s administration ended in India?
(a) 1854 A.D.
(b) 1856 A.D.
(c) 1857 A.D.
(d) 1858 AD.
Answer:
(d) 1858 A.D.

Question 79.
After imprisonment Bahadur Saha All, leader of the Revolt of 1857 was deported to?
(a) Rangoon
(b) Nepal
(c) Siberia
(d) Kashmir
Answer:
(a) Rangoon

Question 80.
In November 1, 1858, who read out the proclamation of Queen Victoria at the arranged Durban of Allahabad?
(a) Lord Minto
(b) Lord Canning
(c) Lord Dalhousie
(d) Lord Wellesley
Answer:
(b) Lord Canning

Question 81.
Who was the first viceroy of India?
(a) Lord William Bentick
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Cornwallis
(d) Lord Canning
Answer:
(d) Lord Canning

Question 82.
When the Indian police Act proclaimed?
(a) 1855 A.D.
(b) 1861 A.D.
(e) 1862 A.D.
(d) 1864 A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1861 A.D.

Question 83.
When Mohan Das Karamchand Gandhi, (Mahatma Gandhi) was born at Porbandar of Gujurat?
(a) 3 December 1884
(b) 5 September 1888
(c) 2 October 1869
(d) 14 November 1889
Answer:
(e) 2 October 1869

Question 84.
Name of the parents of Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) Moulai & Swaruprani
(b) Mahadev and Kamaiesvar Dcvi
(c) Bhiraswami and Sua Maa
(d) Karamchaxd Gandhi àñd Putuli Bai
Answer:
(d) Karamchand Gandhi and Putuli Bai

Question 85.
In which age did Mahatma Gandhi married?
(a) 13
(b) 18
(c) 24
(d) 30
Answer:
(a) 13

Question 86.
Name of the wife of Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) Kamala
(b) Yasodhara
(c) Git.a
(d) Kasturbai
Answer:
(d) Kasturbai

Question 87.
When Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi went to London to study Law?
(a) 1886 A.D.
(b) 1888 A.D.
(c) 1901 A.D.
(d) 1919 A.Ð.
Answer:
(b) 1888 A.D.

Question 88.
Which English writer’s Bhagbat Gita translated text deeply Influenced and enlightened Mohandas?
(a) Edwin Arnold
(b) Virginia Wolf
(c) T.S. Eliot
(d) Wales Stevens
Answer:
(a) Edwin Arnold

Question 89.
When Mahatma Gandhi proceeded to South Africa?
(a) 1892 A.D.
(b) 1893 A.D.
(c) 1902 A.D.
(d) 1918 A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1893 A.D.

Question 90.
For the first time in his life where Mahatma Gandhi delivered his political speech.
(a) England
(b) India
(c) South Africa
(d) Australia
Answer:
(c) South Africa

Question 91.
For the first time who described Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi as ‘Mahatma’?
(a) Motilal Nehru
(b) Edwin Arnold
(c) Abdul Gafar Khan
(d) Rabindranath Tagore
Answer:
(d) Rabindranath Tagore

Question 92.
When Indian National Congress got its birth?
(a) 1880 A.D.
(b) 1882 A.D.
(c) 1883 A.D.
(d) 1885 A.D.
Answer:
(d) 1885 A.D.

Question 93.
At Amritsar city or Punjab when the heinous Jallianawala Bagh pathetic and magic massacre occurred?
(a) April 6, 1919 A.D.
(b) April 13, 1919 A.D.
(c) August 20, 1917 A.D.
(d) December 23, 1920 A.D.
Answer:
(a) April 13, 1919 A.D.

Question 94.
When was Montegue Chemsford resort passed by England Parliament and envisaged as the “Indian Administration Act”?
(a) 1917 A.D.
(b) 1919 A.D.
(c) 1920 A.D.
(d) 1921 A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1919 A.D.

Question 95.
When did the Non-cooperation Movement begin with the inspiration of Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) 1919 A.D.
(b) 1920 A.D.
(c) 1921 A.D.
(d) 1922 A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1920 A.D.

Question 96.
At the time of the Non-Co-operation Movement which Muslim agitation was heartily supported by Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) Khilafat Movement
(b) Kidwai Movement
(c) Muslim agitation of Gujurat
(d) Muslim agitation at Bombay
Answer:
(a) Khilafat Movement

Question 97.
In which session of the Indian National Congress Non-Co-operation proposal was accepted against the English government?
(a) Calcutta Session
(b) Nagpur Session
(c) Lahore Session
(d) Bombay Session
Answer:
(b) Nagpur Session

Question 98.
How many representatives of Odisha joined to Nagpur Congress session in December 1920?
(a) 15
(b) 25
(c) 35
(d) 50
Answer:
(c) 35

Question 99.
Name of the President of the newly formed “Odisha State Congress Committee”?
(a) Gopabandhu Das
(b) Bhagirathi Mohapatra
(c) Jadumani Manga Raj
(d) Mukunda Prasad
Answer:
(a) Gopabandhu Das

Question 100.
When Mahatma Gandhi came in Odisha?
(a) December 1920
(b) March 1921
(c) November 1921
(d) February 192
Answer:
(b) March 1921

Question 101.
By December 1921 where Congress Session took place?
(a) Gwalior
(b) Kolkata
(c) Pune
(d) Ahmedabad
Answer:
(d) Ahmedabad

Question 102.
For what purpose Mahatma Gandhi cried a halt to the Non-Co-operation movement?
(a) Request of the English government
(b) Chaurichaura incident
(c) Breakage of Khilafat Movement
(d) Non-Co-operation of people
Answer:
(b) Chaurichaura incident

Question 103.
For the circulation of the Non-Cooperation Movement who published “Weekly Samaj” in Odisha?
(a) Acharya Harihar .
(b) Godabarisha Mishra
(c) Gopabandhu Das
(d) Harekrushna Mahatab
Answer:
(c) Gopabandhu Das

Question 104.
When was Satyabadi Vanavidyalaya converted to National School?
(a) 1919
(b) 1920
(c) 1021
(d) 1922
Answer:
(c) 1921

Question 105.
Who organized the Non-Cooperation movement in Odisha?
(a) Gopabandhu Das
(b) Gopabandhu Chaudhury
(c) Harekrushna Mahatab
(d) Bhagirathi Mohapatra
Answer:
(a) Gopabandhu Das

Question 106.
Where “Swaraj Ashram” was established in order to impart education and give shelter to the workers involved in the Non-cooperation movement?
(a) Jagatsinghpur
(b) Sakhigopal
(c) Cuttack
(d) Baleswar
Answer:
(c) Cuttack

Question 107.
Where “Swaraj Temple” was built at the time of the Non-cooperation movement?
(a) Baleswar
(b) Bhadrak
(c) Puri
(d) Cuttack
Ans.
(a) Baleswar

Question 108.
Who established ‘Satyabadi Vana Vidyalaya’ at Sakhigopal?
(a) Karunakar Panigrahi
(b) Madhusudan Das
(c) Gopabandhu Das
(d) Harekrushna Mahatab
Answer:
(c) Gopabandhu Das

Question 109.
When Simon Commission entered India?
(a) 1922 A.D.
(b) 1926 A.D.
(c) 1927 A.D.
(d) 1928 A.D.
Answer:
(d) 1928 A.D.

Question 110.
Who presided over in the Lahore session of the Indian National Congress?
(a) Motilal Nehru
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
Answer:
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 111.
In which session of the Indian National Congress “Puma Swaraj” proposal was accepted?
(a) Lahore Session
(b) Nagpur Session
(e) Kolkata Session
(d) Ahmedabad Session
Answer:
(a) Labore Session

Question 112.
When was Gopabandhu Das demised?
(a) 1921 A.D.
(b) 1928 A.D.
(c) 1929 AD.
(d) 1930 A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1928 A.D.

Question 113.
January 20, 1930, was performed on which day?
(a) Day of Law Disobedience
(b) Non-Cooperation day
(c) Puma Swaraj Day
(d) Black Day
Answer:
(è) Puma Swaraj Day

Question 114.
When did Civil Disobedience begin?
(a) l2March 1930
(b) l2March 1929
(c) 12 March 1931
(d) 12 March 1928
Answer:
(a) 12 March 1930

Question 115.
What is told about the historic march from Sabarmati Ashram towards the sea beach at Dandi?
(a) Sabarmati Journey
(b) Dandi March
(e) Non-VioLence March
(d) Go back to English in March
Answer:
(b) Dandi March

Question 116.
Who was the Governor-general of India at the time of the Civil Disobedience movement?
(a) Lord Irwin
(b) Lord Linlithgo
(c) Lord Minto
(d) Lord Merle
Answer:
(a) Lord Irwin

Question 117.
Who was the congress president of Odisha at the time of the Civil Disobedience Movement?
(a) Gopabandhu Das
(b) Acharya Harihar Das
(c) Smt. Raina Dcvi
(d) Harekrushna Mahatab
Ans.
(d) Harcknishna Mahatab

Question 118.
Which place of Odisha is regarded as the second Dandi?
(a) Huma
(b) Kujanga
(c) Astaranga
(d) Inchudi
Answer:
(d) Inchudi

Question 119.
When Gandi-Irwin pact was signed?
(a) 27 February 1930
(b) 27 February 1929
(c) 27 February 1931
(d) 27 February 1932
Answer:
(e) 27 February 1931

Question 120.
In the second round table conference as England In 1931 who was the only Indian representative to attend it?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Abdul Gafar Khan
(c) Gopalkrushna Gokhle
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer:
(d) Mahatma Gandhi

Question 121.
Gandhi on a serious disappointment at the Round Table Conference and on the way to India met the famous thinker Roma Rolla of which country?
(a) Russia
(b) Japan
(c) Italy
(d) France
Answer:
(d) France

Question 122.
On the way to India from England Gandhi also met the dictator Mussolini of which country?
(a) Italy
(b) France
(c) Greece
(d) Russia
Answer:
(a) Italy

Question 123.
The Depressed caste policy of the English disappointed Mahatma Gandhi so that he was engaged in fasting till death at the jail when?
(a) 12 March 1930
(b) 27 February 1931
(c) 15 March 1932
(d) 20 September 1932
Answer:
(d) 20 September 1932

Question 124.
Who among the following formed the Depressed Class Association?
(a) B. R. Ambedkar
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) C. R. Das
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
(a) B. R. Ambedkar

Question 125.
After deep consultation, Gandhi and B. R. Ambedkar signed in which pact on 24 September 1932?
(a) Depressed Pact
(b) Independence Pact
(c) Poona Pact
(d) Upliftment Pact
Answer:
(c) Poona Pact

Question 126.
By the approval of England Parliament in which year the Indian Administration Act formulated?
(a) 1932 A.D.
(b) 1933 A.D.
(c) 1934 A.D.
(d) 1935 A.D.
Answer:
(d) 1935 A.D.

Question 127.
According to the Indian Administration Act of 1935 in which year common election was held?
(a) 1935 A.D.
(b) 1936 A.D.
(C) 1937 A.D.
(d) 1938 A.D.
Answer:
(c) 1937 A.D.

Question 128.
In the first constituted Congress ministry at Odisha which Independence worker took the charge of Prime Minister?
(a) Harekrushna Mahatab
(b) Malati Choudhury
(c) Biswanath Das
(d) Jadumani Mangaraj
Answer:
(c) Biswanath Das

Question 129.
Who was the Governor-general of India at the time of the second world war?
(a) Lord Irwin
(b) Lord Marley
(c) Lord Canning
(d) Lord Linlithgo
Answer:
(d) Lord Linlithgo

Question 130.
By observing the depressed caste policy of the English government the congress ministry all over India when gave mass resignation.
(a) March 1, 1938
(b) October 1, 1938
(c) October 1, 1939
(d) January 26, 1940
Answer:
(c) October 1, 1939

Question 131.
When Mohammad Ali Jinnah left congress and became the president of the Muslim League?
(a) 1919A.D,
(b) 1920 A.D.
(c) 1922 A.D.
(d) 1925 A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1920A.D.

Question 132.
In which year Mohammad All Jlnnah surprised India by demanding Pakistan?
(a) 1935 A.D.
(b) 1940 A.D.
(c) 1945 A.D.
(d) 1946 A.D.
Answer:
(a) 1940 A.D.

Question 133.
Who Is popular as Frontier Gandhi?
(a) Soukat All
(b) Mohammad 11
(e) Khan Abdul Gafar Khan
(d) Abul Kalam Aiad
Answer:
(c) Khan Abdul Gafar Khan

Question 134.
When Crips Mission came on an India tour?
(a) 1940 A.D.
(b) 1941 AD.
(c) 1942 A.D.
(d) 1943 A.D.
Answer:
(b) 1941 A.D.

Question 135.
When Mahatma Gandhi indulged in the proposal of the “Quit India Movement”?
(a) August 7, 1941
(b) August 7, 1942
(c) August 7, 1943
(d) August 7, 1944
Answer:
(b) August 7, 1942

Question 136.
The Quit India Movement is known by which other name?
(a) February movement
(b) July movement
(c) August movement
(d) October movement
Answer:
(e) August movement

Question 137.
After the acceptance of the Quit India Movement which the congress led in Odisha was protected in Ahmed Nagar tower.
(a) Laxman Nayak
(b) Birsa Munda
(e) Harekrushna Mahatab
(d) Achaiya Harihar Das
Answer:
(ç) Harekrushna Mahatab

Question 138.
Which massacre at Odisha is regarded as the 2nd Jalianawala Bagh massacre?
(a) Bhandari Pokhari
(b) Inchudi
(c) Khajradtha
(d) Iram
Answer:
(d) Iram

Question 139.
When Laxman Nayak was hanged?
(a) 29 March 1943
(b) 22 March 1943
(e) 25 March 1943
(d) 27 March 1943
Answer:
(a) 29 March 1943

Question 140.
When second world war came to an end?
(a) 1943A.D.
(b) 1944 A.D
(c) 1945 A.D.
(d) 1946 A.Ð.
Answer:
(e) 1945 A.D.

Question 141.
Who was the Prime Minister of England after sçond World war?
(a) Clement Richard Atlee
(b) Winston Churchill
(e) Sir Staford Cripps
(d) Pethick Lawrence
Answer:
(a) Clement Richard Atlee

Question 142.
When Prime Minister Atlee sent a cabinet Mission to India?
(a) March 1945
(b) March 1946
(c) November 1946
(d) January 1947
Answer:
(b) March 1946

Question 143.
In which day Mohammad Ali Jinnah ordered the Indian Muslims to perform “Direct Action Day”?
(a) August 16,1945
(b) December 25, 1945
(c) August 16, 1946
(d) December 9, 1946
Answer:
(c) August 16, 1946

Question 144.
When did the constituent Assembly meet to form the Indian constitution?
(a) November 19, 1945
(b) July 16, 1946
(c) December 9, 1946
(d) February 8, 1947
Answer:
(c) December 9, 1946

Question 145.
Who took the charge of Governor-general of India in March 1947?
(a) Lord Waved
(b) Pethick Lawrence
(c) Lord Mountbatten
(d) A. V. Alexander
Answer:
(c) Lord Mountbatten

Fill In the Blanks.

Question 1.
According to __________ historian, it was believed that the people of all village communities of India had used all types of essential goods.
Answer:
Elphin stone

Question 2.
__________ system was prominent in village industry.
Answer:
Weaving

Question 3.
For __________ raw materials, India got a reputation all over the world.
Answer:
Cotton

Question 4.
In ancient India, the Muslim and elvet finer clothes were demanded by the kings and their families __________ of the country.
Answer:
Egypt

Question 5.
After victory over the pissy war the English people first captured and developed in __________ state of India.
Answer:
Bengal

Question 6.
In the world at first in __________ country machinery industrial revolution took place.
Answer:
England

Question 7.
In England in __________ A.D. flying shuttle was invented.
Answer:
1760

Question 8.
By seeing the precarious condition of weavers in India __________ Governer General opined that “In the business history such type of precarious condition is not seen.
Answer:
Lord William Bentinck

Question 9.
At England, the steam engine was invented in __________ AD.
Answer:
1768

Question 10.
At the time of the English administration, ¡n India __________ Governor General introduced permanent settlement.
Answer:
Lord Cornwallis

Question 11.
In 1780 Governer General __________ gave data that every year nearly gold of Forty lakh rupees was exported to England.
Answer:
Lord Warren Hastings

Question 12.
By the recommendation of __________ Lord Cornwallis Introduced permanent settlement in India.
Answer:
Sir John Shore

Question 13.
In __________ year Lord Cornwallis Introduced permanent settlement.
Answer:
1793

Question 14.
In India Railway system began at the time of Governor General __________.
Answer:
Lord Dalhousie

Question 15.
The First Railway Passenger system was Introduced In England in __________ A.D.
Answer:
1825

Question 16.
English personality __________ gave a proposal to the British government that an enormous economic development will rise in England if the railway system developed at India.
Answer:
Roland Macdonald Stephenson.

Question 17.
In __________ A.D. railway line construction began in India.
Answer:
1850

Question 18.
In __________ A.D. first railway system was inaugurated ¡n India so also In Asia.
Answer:
1853

Question 19.
The first Inaugurated railway connected from __________ to place __________.
Answer:
Bombay to Thane

Question 20.
In ______________ AD. Telegraph installed ¡n India.
Answer:
1852

Question 21.
Telegraph Introduction In India was guided by scientific __________ engineer.
Answer:
O.Sanessy

Question 22.
At the time of Daihousie’s departure from India, the Telegraph line covered mostly __________ thousand miles.
Answer:
4000

Question 23.
In 1840 __________ important personality invented the “Penny Postal System” In England.
Answer:
Sir Roland Hill

Question 24.
In __________ AD. Half-Anna postal system was introduced in India by England Parliament.
Answer:
1852

Question 25.
Governor General __________ prevailed postal system in India.
Answer:
Dalhousie

Question 26.
In __________ A.D. Dalhousie introduced the new postal system in India.
Answer:
1854

Question 27.
In Rayitwarl land revenue system __________ had given utmost importance.
Answer:
Cultivation

Question 28.
Mahaiwarl system was introduced in __________ A.D. in India.
Answer:
1833

Question 29.
In the administration of __________ Governor General Mahaiwarl, the system has prevailed in India.
Answer:
William Bentick

Question 30.
At first Mahalwarl system lntrduced in __________ and __________area of liidIa.
Answer:
Agra and Ayodhya

Question 31.
__________ was Involved In the Mahaiwari system.
Answer:
Holt Mevenji

Question 32.
In the Oudh district of Uttar Pradesh __________ type revenue prevailed.
Answer:
Talukdar

Question 33.
After permanent settlement Introduction of system __________ candiled the land allotment of some landlords.
Answer:
Sunset law

Question 34.
__________ Governor General Introduced fifth-year settlement with landlords.
Answer:
Lord Waren Hastings

Question 35.
__________ European country abandoned ¡mort duty on Indian clothes.
Answer:
Holland

Question 36.
For the development __________ cultivation the court of directors send to India the American experts.
Answer:
Cotton

Question 37.
In __________ war, Robert Clive defeated Nawab Shiraz-up-doula and Installed an English administration in India.
Answer:
Plassey

Question 38.
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee’s “Anand Math” nóvel published on __________ A.D.
Answer:
1882.

Question 39.
Bankim Chandra Chaterjee in his __________ book gave importance to the sanyasi revolt.
Answer:
Anand Math

Question 40.
__________ numbers sanyasi were slain by the English at Bengal and for it the revolt rigorously proclaimed.
Answer:
150

Question 41.
Buxar war fought in __________ A.D.
Answer:
1764

Question 42.
__________ introduced dual government in Bengal.
Answer:
Robert Clive

Question 43.
Dynamic Naya hermits were involved in __________ works at Bengal.
Answer:
Lending

Question 44.
Khurda revolt was known in another name as __________.
Answer:
Paika revolt

Question 45.
The king of Puri was __________ at the time of the khurda revolt.
Answer:
Mukunda Dev II

Question 46.
The full name of Buxi Jagabandhu was __________.
Answer:
Jagabandhu Bidyadhar Mohapatra Bhramarbar Ray

Question 47.
__________ were the heroic and adventurous class of men in Odisha.
Answer:
Paikas

Question 48.
Before coming of English to Odisha __________ was commander-in-chief of khurda
king.
Answer:
Buxi Jagabandhu

Question 49.
Paika Chiefs were reputed as __________.
Answer:
Khandayat

Question 50.
English government confiscated the property of Buxi Jagabandhu on __________.
Answer:
1813

Question 51.
Santa revolt constituted in __________ A.D.
Answer:
1855

Question 52.
On __________ law of East India Company, the Santals were prohibited to collect jungle products.
Answer:
Jungle Law

Question 53.
In __________ place of Sahibganj district, the English trader got facilities for trading purposes.
Answer:
Rajmahal

Question 54.
The leader of santala revolt Siddhu murmur belongs to __________village.
Answer:
Bhagnadiha

Question 55.
After the Plassey battle in exactly __________ many years, sepoy mutiny came into existence.
Answer:
100

Question 56.
__________was the Governor General at the time of the 1857 sepoy mutiny.
Answer:
Lord Canning

Question 57.
To annex the kingly states with the British empire Governor Dalhousie adopted __________ policy.
Answer:
Doctrine of lapse

Question 58.
At the time of sepoy, mutiny __________ was the nominal Mughal Samrat.
Answer:
Bahadur saha II

Question 59.
The doctrine of Lapse of __________ made the kingly state leaders as relentless foes to
British.
Answer:
Lord Dalhousie.

Question 60.
Previously the principle __________ of Lord Wellesley made the leaders foes to the British.
Answer:
Subsidiary Alliance

Question 61.
Governor General __________ displaced the sati system in India.
Answer:
William Bentick

Question 62.
At the time of Governor General __________, widow remarriage law came into existence.
Answer:
Lord Dalhousie

Question 63.
At the time of Governor General __________, the people accepted Christianity and got their property rights.
Answer:
Lord Dalhousie

Question 64.
According to __________ incident sparking atmosphere in the revolt of 1857 came to existence.
Answer:
Prevalence of Enfield rifle

Question 65.
In 1857 in the Bengal regiment of Barakpur __________brahmin sepoy shoot to English officer.
Answer:
Mangal Pandey

Question 66.
In __________ A.D. Lord William Bentick Promulgated the English language in India.
Answer:
1835.

Question 67.
__________Was the orator of “Drain of Wealth”.
Answer:
Dadabhai Naroji

Question 68.
In 1857 sepoy mutiny __________ was the first martyr.
Answer:
Mangal Pandey

Question 69.
By the order of General, Hearsay __________ was given a hanging sentence.
Answer:
Mangal Pandey

Question 70.
According to legend in __________ rifle, there was a coat of cow and pig fat.
Answer:
Enfield

Question 71.
On __________ A.D. English government introduced the Enfield rifle.
Answer:
1856

Question 72.
In the early part of 1857 at __________, the symptom of revolt was marked within the sepoys.
Answer:
Barakpore

Question 73.
On May 10, 1857, the sepoy force broke out in open revolt at __________.
Answer:
Meerut

Question 74.
By capturing the Mughal palace the rebels declined __________ as the Emperor of India.
Answer:
Bahadur Saha II

Question 75.
__________ warrior took charge of the course of the revolt at Bihar.
Answer:
Kanwar Singh

Question 76.
On __________day Mangal Pandey fired at Sergent Major at Barrackpore which led to the beginning of the revolt in 1857.
Answer:
March 29, 1857

Question 77.
Warrior __________gave direction to his forces from Kanpur in the revolt.
Answer:
Nana Sahab

Question 78.
__________was the adopted son of Pesva Bajirao II.
Answer:
Nana Saheb

Question 79.
The revolt-oriented sepoys declared __________ as the Pesva and followed his leadership.
Answer:
Nana Saheb

Question 80.
The taluqdars and peasants of Oudh took up arms to fight __________the warfare against the British enemy.
Answer:
Guerilla

Question 81.
At Gwalior, __________ warrior took the leadership of twenty thousand rebel sepoys.
Answer:
Tantia Tope

Question 82.
English commander __________ came to resist Tantia Tope but was defeated.
Answer:
General Windham

Question 83.
At the time of the sepoy, revolt __________ was the administrator of Punjab.
Answer:
Sir John Lawrence

Question 84.
In the accelerated time of sepoy revolt __________ skillful governor made quiet and calm to Bombay Presidency.
Answer:
Lord Elphinstone

Question 85.
__________ brave English commander came from Punjab to Delhi and demolished the famous Kashmir tower there.
Answer:
Nicholson

Question 86.
__________English commander shoot the two sons and one grandson of Bahadur Shah II.
Answer:
Hudson

Question 87.
At Jhansi, __________ took charge of the revolt of the 1857 mutiny.
Answer:
Queen Laxmibai

Question 88.
On __________ day at the time of war in male dress, Queen Laxmibai breathed her last.
Answer:
June 17, 1858

Question 89.
Mostly in allover aggravated areas of India, the revolt came to standstill still it continued into __________ year at Odisha.
Answer:
4

Question 90.
__________had taken leadership of Odisha sepoy mutiny.
Answer:
Bira Surendra

Question 91.
English commander __________ opened regarding Queen Laxmibai that “She was the eminent and most brave among the revolutionists of sepoy mutiny”.
Answer:
Sir Hiue Gao

Question 92.
On __________ year Govt, of India act was proclaimed at England Parliament.
Answer:
1858

Question 93.
From __________year A.D., the administration of East India company came to an end.
Answer:
1858

Question 94.
Mughal emperor Bahadur Saha II was sent to place __________ as punishment.
Answer:
Rangoon

Question 95.
In 1858, on November 1 at Allahabad __________ read the proclamation of Queen victoria.
Answer:
Lord Canning

Question 96.
From 1858 the Governor General was named __________.
Answer:
Vice-Roy

Question 97.
__________was the first viceroy of India.
Answer:
Lord Canning

Question 98.
Indian Police Act introduced on __________ A.D.
Answer:
1861

Question 99.
__________was prohibited among the sepoys for its use.
Answer:
Sectarian mark on the forehead

Question 100.
1857 revolt against the British was the first “Independence revolt” said it.
Answer:
Surendranath Sen

Question 101.
Mohan Das Karam Chand Gandhi (Mahatma Gandhi) was born on at __________ Porbandar of Gujurat.
Answer:
October 2, 1869

Question 102.
The name of the parents of Mahatma Gandhi was __________.
Answer:
Karam Chand Gandhi and Putuli Bai

Question 103.
Mahatma Gandhi’s marriage occurred on __________ age.
Answer:
13

Question 104.
The name of the wife of Mahatma Gandhi was __________.
Answer:
Kastur Bai

Question 105.
Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi to study law on __________ A.D. went to England.
Answer:
1888

Question 106.
Mohandas was deeply impressed by reading the English version of Gita which was written by writer __________.
Answer:
Edwin Arnold

Question 107.
Mohandas on __________ A.D. went to South Africa.
Answer:
1893

Question 108.
Gandhi in his life first gave a political speech in __________ country.
Answer:
South Africa

Question 109.
__________described Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi as “Mahatma”.
Answer:
Rabindranath Tagore

Question 110.
Indian National Congress was born on __________ A.D.
Answer:
1885

Question 111.
At Amritsar of Punjab, the heriouis Jalianawalabag massacre took place on __________.
Answer:
April 13, 1919

Question 112.
Montague Chelmsford’s report being approved by British Parliament came to be known as Indian Administration law on __________A.D.
Answer:
1919

Question 113.
By the inspiration of Mahatma Gandhi on __________ A.D., the Non-corporation movement began.
Answer:
1920

Question 114.
At the time of the Non-cooperation movement, Mahatma Gandhi supported earnestly to __________ movement of the Muslims.
Answer:
Khilafat

Question 115.
In __________ congress conference, the non-cooperation proposal against the British was accepted.
Answer:
Nagpur

Question 116.
In 1920 Nagpur congress conference __________number representatives from Odisha attended.
Answer:
35

Question 117.
__________ was the first President of the newly constituted “Utkal State Congress Committee”.
Answer:
Gopabandhu Das

Question 118.
__________ took leadership of the non-cooperation movement in the Puri district.
Answer:
Krupasindhu Mishra

Question 119.
In the non-cooperation movement, Bhagirathi Mishra took leadership of the district of __________.
Answer:
Cuttack

Question 120.
Mahatma Gandhi on __________A.D. __________ month came to Odisha.
Answer:
1921 March

Question 121,
On 1921 December at __________congress conference was held.
Answer:
Ahamadabad

Question 122.
Mahatma Gandhi for __________ gave a halt to the non-cooperation movement.
Answer:
Chouri Choura incident

Question 123.
Chori Choura is situated in the district of __________.
Answer:
Gorakhpur

Question 124.
To circulate non-cooperation news at Odisha __________ edited “weekly Samaj”.
Answer:
Gopabandhu Das

Question 125.
“Satyabadi Vana Vidyalaya” was established on __________ leadership at Sakshigopal.
Answer:
Gopabandhu Das

Question 126.
On __________ A.D. “Satyabadi Vana Vidyalaya” converted to a national school.
Answer:
1921

Question 127
__________ personality constituted a non-cooperation movement in Odisha.
Answer:
Gopabandhu Das

Question 128.
To educate the Workers of the non-cooperation movement “Swaraj Ashram” was established at __________.
Answer:
Cuttack

Question 129.
At the time of the non-cooperation movement “Swaraj Temple” was established at __________.
Answer:
Baleswar

Question 130.
On __________ A.D. Simon Commission came to India.
Answer:
1928

Question 131.
On __________A.D. the Indian waged voice strongly as “Go back Simon”.
Answer:
1928

Question 132.
In the Lahore National Congress conference __________ Presided over the meeting.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 133.
On __________congress conference “Poorna Swaraj” proposal was accepted.
Answer:
Lahore

Question 134.
The death of Gopabandhu Das occured on __________ A.D.
Answer:
1928

Question 135.
1930 January 26 was celebrated as __________day.
Answer:
“Poorna Swaraj Day”l Hassan

Question 136.
Civil Disobedience movement began on A.D. __________ month __________ day __________.
Answer:
1930, March 12

Question 137.
The long foot journey from Sabarmati Ashram to near ocean place Dandi was called __________.
Answer:
Dandi Yatra

Question 138.
__________was Governor General at the time of the civil disobedience movement in India.
Answer:
Lord Irwin

Question 139.
At the time of civil disobedience, movement __________ was the President of the Utkal Congress Committee.
Answer:
Harekrushna Mahatab

Question 140.
__________ place of Odisha regarded as second Dandi.
Answer:
Inchudi

Question 141.
Mahatma Gandhi began Dandi March on __________1 AID.
Answer:
1930 March 12

Question 142.
For the law breakage at Inchudi __________took the leadership.
Answer:
Acharya Harihar Das

Question 143.
Gandhi Irwin pact was signed on A.D. __________ month.
Answer:
1930 February 7

Question 144.
On the first round table conference, __________ was not invited.
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 145.
On 1931 A.D. at the second round table conference __________was the only invited congress representative who took part in it.
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 146.
With a departed mentality, Mahatma Gandhi on his return way met __________country’s eminent thinkable personality Roma Rola.
Answer:
France

Question 147,
On his return way from England, Mahatma Gandhi met to dictator Mussolini of __________ country.
Answer:
Italy

Question 148.
The untouchable policy of the British Government affected deeply to Mahatma Gandhi and for it he began death fasting on __________ month __________ A.D.
Answer:
20 September 19326

Question 149.
At the time of Gandhi’s fasting __________ was popular as the unique leader of untouchable clim in India.
Answer:
B.R.Ambedkar

Question 150.
By consultation of Gandhi with Ambedkar at last __________ pact was signed in between them on 1932, September 24.
Answer:
Poona

Question 151.
With the approval of the British Parliament, English Government proclaimed Indian administration law on __________ A.D.
Answer:
1935

Question 152.
According to the 1935 Indian administration law on __________A.D. the general election was held.
Answer:
1937

Question 153.
On the first congress ministry at Odisha __________an independence fighter took charge as the Prime Minister.
Answer:
Biswanath Das

Question 154.
__________was the Governor General of India at the time of the second world war.
Answer:
Lord Linlithgo

Question 155.
By realizing the dividend policy the congress ministry all over India Oil __________ day gave mats resignation.
Answer:
1939 October 1

Question 156.
Muhammad Ali Zinah on __________A.D. left congress and became the President of the Muslim League.
Answer:
1920

Question 157.
On __________A.D. Muhammad Ali Zinah gave the proposal for Pakistan.
Answer:
1940

Question 158.
__________was popular as “Frontier Gandhi”.
Answer:
Khan Abdul Gafar Khan

Question 159.
On __________A.D Cripps mission visited India.
Answer:
1941

Question 160.
On __________day Mahatma Gandhi brought the “Quit India” proposal.
Answer:
1942 August 7

Question 161.
The “Quit India” movement was known otherwise in __________name.
Answer:
August revolution

Question 162.
After quitting India’s proposal the congress leader of Odisha __________ with handcuff surrounded at Ahmadnagar fort.
Answer:
Harekrushna Mahatab

Question 163.
The massacre of __________place of Alisha is considered the second Jalianawalabag.
Answer:
Iram

Question 164.
On __________day Laxman Nayak was hanged.
Answer:
1943 March 29

Question 165.
Second world war ended on __________A.D.
Answer:
1945

Question 166.
After Second World War __________was the Prime Minister of England.
Answer:
Clement Richard Attee

Question 167.
Prime Minister Atlee send a cabinet mission to India on __________A.D.
Answer:
1946 march

Question 168.
Zinah ordered the Muslims of India to observe a “Direct working day” on __________day.
Answer:
1946 August 16

Question 169.
On __________ day framing of the Indian constitution constituent Assembly was installed.
Answer:
1946 December 9

Question 170.
On 1947 march __________ took the charge of Governor General of India.
Answer:
Mountbatten

Question 171.
__________leader popularly known as the “Iron man of India”.
Answer:
SardarBallavbhai Patel

Question 172.
__________took charge as the first Governor General of Pakistan.
Answer:
Muhammad Ali Zinnah

Question 173.
Constituent Assembly gave appointment to __________as the first Governor General of India.
Answer:
Lord Mountbatten

Question 174.
Sardar Ballavbhai Patel is considered with __________ of Germany.
Answer:
Bismark

Question 175.
Jawaharlal Nehru born at Allahabad on __________A.D.
Answer:
1889

Question 176.
“Discovery of India” was written by __________.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 177.
Muslims got quiet on the “Quit India Movement” on the order of __________.
Answer:
Muhammad Ah Zinnah

Question 178.
Congress was the “Organisation of some people” __________said it.
Answer:
Dufllin

Question 179.
Mahatma Gandhi at first selected __________country as his working field.
Answer:
South Africa

Question 180.
The first Prime Minister of Independent India was __________.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru

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Moving Average Screener

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Solutions Unit 5 Intelligence Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Questions And Answers

Short-Answer Type Questions

Question 1:
Creativity
Answer:
Creativity is a kind of cognitive activity that results in a new way of solving problems. The concept of creativity needs special attention.

Question 2:
Artificial Intelligence
Answer:
In the stage of information technology and computer science artificial intelligence. The computer’s performance is done by artificial intelligence.

Question 3:
Hereditary factors
Answer:
Several studies have been conducted on identical twins to determine the role of hereditary. Holzinger identicals this twins.

Question 4:
Age and Intelligence
Answer:
I.Qs tend to be erratic in the first few years of life, whole intellectual ability. Binet’s intelligence tests were first administered to individuals of different age groups.

Question 5:
Emotional Intelligence
Answer:
The concept of emotional intelligence is quite a novel one. Current researchers have started recognising that in the world.

Question 6:
Distribution of intelligence in the population
Answer:
When intelligence test is administered to thousands of children of the same age the population. In the OX axis, the amount of I.Q. is presented.

Question 7:
Sternberg’s briarchic theory of approach.
Answer:
Sternberg (1985) has attempted to explain the concept of intelligence. Componential intelligence. Experiential intelligence emphasizes insight and involves the ability to formulate new 7 ideas. Contextual intelligence it is 3rd aspect. Sternberg’s view of intelligence is purposive adaption.

Question 8:
Emotional intelligence
Answer:
The concept of emotional intelligence is quite a novel one. Current researchers have started recognising that in the practical world. This is in fact very encouraging and illuminating research in the finding in the area of intelligence. Intelligence is the capacity to adapt and adjust quickly to-varied circumstances of life. This is more necessary and required in life than theoretical or abstract intelligence.

Question 9:
Artificial Intelligence
Answer:
In the age of information technology and computer science, artificial intelligence demonstrates intelligent performance. Intelligence is created by human beings. Examples computerisation, calculations perceptual tasks etc. We can solve problems and play complex games on computers. We can plan everything easily through the computers.

Question 10:
Mental age (M.A.)
Answer:
Mental age is a measure of the absolute level of intelligence. A 6-years old child who performs the intelligence test of a 5-year-old child is said to have mental age, of 5 years. In short, mental age refers to a type of norm. The Stanford-Binet test result indicates that mental ability increases as the child grows older. In the case of children with normal intelligence mental age increases at the same rate as chronological age.

Question 11:
Intelligence Quotient (I.Q.)
Answer:
The ratio which states the relationship between mental age and chronological age is called I.Q. The I.Q. or the intelligent Quotient is computed by the formula. The I.Q. as a ratio gives a figure for any person that remains more or less constant for a period of years. An intelligent person is referred to in the term I.Q. Children who are above average will receive an I.Q. above 100.

Question 12:
Infant intelligence tests
Answer:
Some intelligence tests have also been constructed to measure the intelligence of infants and babies. Most of these are meant to measure sensory motor skills. Arnold GeseU’s development schedules like Binet and Wechsler Scaler indicate a clear age progression. The age levels vary from one month to two years. At each age level, the tests are divided into four categories such as motor, adaptive, and language.

Question 13:
Contextual intelligence
Answer:
This is the 3rd aspect of stemborg’s theory. If centres around that intelligence which deals with the inter environment and external world. Persons who rate high on the dimension of contextual intelligence. Stenberg’s, theory puts emphasis on the basic knowledge about cognition. Sternberg’s view of intelligence is purposive adaptation.

Long Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Define intelligence and its definitions.
Answer:
Nature and operational definition of Intelligence.
Geeta is the brightest child I ever saw. Look at her big black eyes; how sharp and 1 expressive they are! She learns a thing almost before you have told it to her. Oh! see how smart Sushil is, you would think he was two years instead of one year. He is S-0-0 intelligent and sharp. These are the common expressions we hear from parents, teachers, neighbours and friends regarding various children.

Brightness, sharpness, and cleverness all refer to some sort of intelligence, which is recognized universally as one of the most important attributes of any person at any age. Those who are most alert mentally, who can react and respond very quickly to any stimulation and cap grapes at the earliest and can understand things before you complete your sentence are l said to be very intelligent.

An intelligent person is always in an advantageous position in society. He can adjust to various circumstances of life in the most appropriate way, can solve problems quickly, can achieve things at a greater speed, can perceive the relationship between different things in the field and can give shape, an organisation to any perception.

On the whole, an intelligent person usually becomes the most successful person, keeping other factors constant. The term intelligence is so commonly used, but it is so complex that it is difficult to give a comprehensive and precise definition of intelligence which would be accepted by most.

As years, pass, volumes of research on intelligence make it so complicated that it becomes difficult to embrace all attributes of intelligence in a single definition. However, psychologists have defined intelligence in their own characteristic way, according to their own conceptions and theories. There still prevails a controversy about its exact meaning although the country’s definitions of intelligence have been there.

The term ‘intelligence’ is derived from a Latin word, framed by Gicepo to translate a Greek word used by Aristotle to include all cognitive processes. This cognitive capacity was called ‘ Intelligence’ and it was thought to be inherited, innate and general to nature. Spencer believes that intelligence is the capacity of the organism to adjust itself to an increasingly complex environment.

Thus, he believed biological adjustment to be a sign of intelligence. Solving complex situations of life means solving the problems of engineering, science, medicine, mathematics, economics, social science, agriculture, business and management”. Galton (1900) was of the opinion that intelligence refers to the general cognitive, innate ability of an organism which was accepted by Binet.

Intelligence is a trait of personality which every living organism possesses to a greater or lesser degree. It is innate, given by birth. Whatever may be the meaning of intelligence, it definitely refers to the individual’s effectiveness or ability to carry on real tasks of day-to-day life successfully and efficiently.

Hence, a person who is able to meet the demands and challenges of life successfully, one who is able to carry out the duties of life effectively is said to be more intelligent than one who does not. According to Binet (1905), the pioneer in the construction of intelligence tests “Intelligence refers to comprehension, intention, direction and criticism”.

Intelligence, therefore, refers to the capacity to comprehend the interrelationship between two things when many other things are present, being more akin to insight. The comprehensive capacity of a less intelligent person or an idiot is superficial, his power to invent is limited. An intelligent person can direct things in a successful manner and can criticise and appreciate things.

Wyatt defines intelligence as the power of apprehending the relationship. According to Stem “Intelligence is a general mental adaptability to new problems and conditions”. In Thorndike’s opinion intelligence is the combination of certain specific abilities. Terman defined intelligence as the capacity to carry out abstract thinking.

Terman is of opinion that we are able to act until gently in proportion we are able to think in abstract terms. But this is quite a narrow definition of intelligence as it does not involve other psychological processes such as perception, imagination etc. Superman (1904) suggested that intelligence is the capacity for constructive thinking, a discovery of appropriate qualities and relations of the ideas that are before us.

Spearman also believes intelligence to be the capacity by which the entire cognitive life is built. According to him, intelligence depends upon the clarity with which he apprehends his own experience, the speed with which he deduces relations and correlations and the complexity of the relation and correlations he deduces.

Most of the modem tests of intelligence are based on these lines. David Wechsler defines intelligence as the aggregate or global capacity of the individual to act purposefully to think rationally and deal effectively with the environment. Precisely, he says that intelligence characterises the individual’s behaviour as a whole. But acting purposefully is not an intelligent behaviour because it refers to the conative aspects of one’s behaviour, while intelligence is related to the cognitive process.

According to Thurstone (1930), intelligence consists of many primary abilities. Some have also defined intelligence as “flexibility or versatility in the use of symbolic processes”. A person who is more flexible and versatile in his reasoning, understanding of concepts, recall, perception and learning is said to be more intelligent.

The theme of these definitions advanced by different psychologists can be summarized as follows:

• Intelligence is the ability of the organism to adjust consciously to new conditions and problems of life.
• It is the capacity to leam, to solve higher kinds of mental activities, to do harder tasks in a shorter time and to profit from past experience.

Question 2.
Critically examine the necessity of infant intelligence tests.
Answer:
Infant intelligence tests according to Gesell these tests do not measure intelligence but the level of development of the child. Thus, the score obtained by an infant in these tests is called Development Quotient (DQ). This is calculated with the same formula used to calculate I.Qs. Performance is scored in months which becomes D. A. (Development Age) like M. A. That is, if a child of two years is able to perform the tests meant, a baby of one year, his D. A. is one year and C. A. is two years and his DQ=\(\frac{12 \times 100}{24}\)=50.

Studies, however, indicate that D.Qs found during infancy do not correlate with I.Qs. achieved at maturity level (16-20 years). The most outstanding study to support this assumption is the Berkeley Growth Study by Bayley and Schaefer (1964) in which children were tested from the first month to the age of 16,17 and 18 years and their D.Qs were compared.

The lack of correlation between these studies explained the fact that the two scores reflect different abilities. This study also strongly supports the assumption that intelligence is not a single capacity growing with age; but rather a collection of several abilities some found in the young child and others found in the older child.

In one study by Hotstaetter(1954) early test scores were found to depend mostly on sensory-motor alertness whereas measures of persistence were important in determining test scores from ages 2-4. Verbal reasoning ability increased rapidly through the pre-school years and as the child grew they became the more important determinants of test scores. All these results suggest that with the growth of intelligence, mental functioning changes qualitatively as well as quantitatively.

Mental Age (M.A.):
Mental age is a measure of the absolute level of intelligence. A 6-year-old child who performs the intelligence test of a 5-year-old child is said to have a mental age of 5 years. When a child of 10 years passes all the tests of a 6-year-old child and half of the tests of 7 year old and none for those of 8 years, his mental age is calculated as 6 years + 6 months + 0 = 78 months.

His chronological age is 10 years. Thus, the mental age is calculated by first finding the age level at which the child passed all the test items, this is called the basal age and then adding up the values for the I remaining items correctly answered. In short, the mental ages refer to a type of norm.

The Stanford-Binet test results indicate that mental ability increases as the child grows older. In the case of children with normal (average) intelligence mental age increases at the same rate as chronological age. But in the case of bright children, there is a more rapid increase in mental ability as a result of which their mental age becomes greater than their chronological age.

On the other hand, in the case of less intelligent (slow) children, the mental age increases at a slower rate in comparison to their chronological age. Thus a six-year-old who performs the tests of a three-year-old only is said to be dull or an idiot. When a 5-year aid is able to answer the test of 10-year-old children, he is said to be very bright. For the calculation of I.Q. mental age is necessary.

Intelligence Quotient (I.Q):
The ratio which states the relationship between mental age and chronological age is called the I.Q. or the Intelligent Quotient. The I.Q. is computed by the following formula :

I.Q=\(\frac{M \cdot A}{C \cdot A}\)x100 if the M. A. and C. A. of an individual are the same, say 10, his I.Q. would be 100 which refers to the average intelligence: (M.A.=10, C.A.=10; I.Q.=\(\frac{10}{10}\)x100=100). Thus normal persons have an I.Q. of 100. If M.A. is 6 and C.A. is 5, I.Q. will be \(\frac{6}{5}\)x100=120, which means better than average intelligence.

Similarly, if one’s M.A. is 10 and C.A. is 15, his I.Q. would be \(\frac{10}{5}\)x100=66.66. This refers to the intelligence level of a moron. The I.Q. as a ratio gives a figure for any person that remains more or less constant for a period of years. Children who are above average will receive an I.Q. above 100. Those below the average will receive an I.Q. below 100.

The I.Q. is not only a measure of relative brightness, but it is also a measure ofthe individual’s rate of intellectual development. Usually, tire levels of intelligence of a person are referred to in terms of I.Q. ranges. The following table show levels of intelligence in terms of Stanford-Binet I.Q. ranges:

In general, it can be assumed that the higher the economic standing of an occupational group, the higher would be the average I.Q. keeping other factors constant. It is a comparative rather than an absolute measure of intelligence. It is relative to the standardization group and the condition under which the groups were tested. If the individual’s I.Q. remains the same at yearly age levels it cannot be said that he maintains his relative position in the group.

Distribution of I.Qs. In The Population:
When an intelligence test is administered to thousands of children the same age as the population, their I.Q. can be represented graphically in the following manner: In the Ox axis, the amount of I.Q. is presented. In the OY axis percentage of children in each category of I.Q. is presented.

That is 2.15 percent of children’s scores. I.Q. between 0-70, 13.59 percent between 70 to 85 and 34.13 percent between 5 to 100, and 34.13 percent of children score between 100 and 115 I.Q. In short, the maximum number of children has an I.Q. between 85-115 population.

Constancy Of I.Q.
The entire concept of I.Q. suggests that an individual will maintain the same relative position in his group as he grows. I.Qs. are constant throughout childhood and adolescence. For one thing, I.Qs. are not very stable during pre-school years (Sontagetal, 1958). The findings of several studies indicate that on the whole I.Q. remains essentially constant.

When other conditions like health, type of education, home situation and other situational facilities do not have a significant change. But in the case of very young children, there may be some deviation from this general rule as their potentialities may still be more variable. Among many studies on the constancy of I.Q., the typical study by Hirt (1945) supports the view that the I.Q. remains relatively constant.

Although a few cases show a change of 50 or more I.Q. points, most studies, comparing the I.Qs. obtained after the pre-school years indicate an average fluctuation of about 5 points plus or minus. Adverse physical conditions like deficient thyroid gland, and insufficient food rand-nutrition may affect them. I.Q. level, though there is no clear-cut evidence in support of these views.

Unusual environmental conditions and lack of normal educational opportunities may lead to the decline in I.Q. to a limited point. But when normal educational opportunities are provided improvement in I.Q. is again found. Good enough (1940) has, however, found a progressive change in the I.Q. of children. The I.Q. changed at yearly intervals like 133,150,143,147 and 151. The child’s school progress also indicated arise.

Question 3.
Sternberg’s approach to intelligence.
Answer:
Sternberg’s Triarchic Theory Approach:
Sternberg (1985) has attempted to explain the concept of intelligence through his Triarchic theory or Triarchic model of intelligence. This theory holds that there are three types of human intelligence.

Componential Intelligence:
It emphasizes effectiveness in information processing. Persons who score high on this dimension are able to think analytically as well as critically. Meritorious students come under this category. These persons generally do excellent on standard tests of academic potential. Componential intelligence includes 3 types of components:

• Knowledge acquisition component
• Performance components for problem-solving methods or strategies
• Metacognitive components for selecting a strategy and monitoring programmes towards success.

Experimental Intelligence:
It emphasizes insight and involves the ability to formulate new ideas. Persons scoring high on this dimension of intelligence excel in knowing what information is important in a given situation and they also succeed at combining unrelated facts into a related one. Great scientists and inventors like Einstein, Newton, Freud etc. come under this category.

Various Nobel prize winners in science and medicine come under this category. Experiential intelligence helps in learning new things and then doing them in reality. It is reflected in creative works. It involves the ability to picture the external world by using and manipulating very different experiences in a unique and original manner. Artists, scientists, and fashion designers score high in this type of intelligence.

Contextual Intelligence:
This is the third aspect of Sternberg’s theory. It centres around that intelligence dealing with the outer environment and external world. It means man’s adjustment to his environment and outer or practical world. How we select our external world, how we change or manipulate our environment as per our needs and requirements and finally how capable we are to adjust to it, all come under conceptual intelligence.

This, in short, refers to practical intelligence. Persons who rate high on the dimension of contextual intelligence are highly adaptive in the practical field. They can adapt very quickly to their surroundings and environment. They can perceive quickly what is required from them in a particular situation and what type of behaviours or responses will bring them success and act accordingly.

People who prove to be very successful in their respective fields of life score very high in this component of intelligence. In a party or in a formal or informal meeting these people become the “man/woman of the day”. They succeed in making their presence felt by everybody. Practical management of day-to-day work come under this category. They shape the environment as per their needs.

Successful professionals and businessmen score high in this category. Stenberg’s theory thus puts emphasis on the basic knowledge about cognition. But if only the I.Q. scores are taken into consideration contextual and experimental intelligence will not be traced. Along with I.Q. tests observation of the behaviour of persons in day-to-day life are also essential. While solving mathematical problems a person also uses his past experience which is part of the intellectual ability according to Sternberg.

Sternberg (1985) divides this experience into two parts:

• Ability to deal with the new situation
• Development of autonomic mechanisms for processing information.

To emphasise this point Sternberg says “I propose that intelligence involves not merely the ability to learn and reason with new concepts, intelligence is not so much the ability to learn and within familiar conceptual systems as it is the ability to learn and think with new conceptual systems which can then be brought to bear upon already existing knowledge.”

In Sternberg’s view, Intelligence is a purposive adaptation to the appropriate environment and selection of an external environment required for living successfully in the environment. The knowledge acquisition component of Sternberg’s theory deals with adjustment to the external world of the organism.

Thus, intelligent people not only adapt to their existing environment but also make changes in their environment and shape it as and when necessary like social reformer Raj a Ram Mohan Ray or famous novelist Prem Chand, who have brought changes in society through their revolutionary works.

Question 4.
Define the Gardener multiple intelligence approach.
Answer:
Recently a few psychologists working in the area of intelligence have attempted to explain intelligence from different angles. These approaches may also be called models of intelligence.

Gardner’s Multiple Intelligence Approach:
According to Gardner (1983) intelligence includes numerous abilities and each one is equally important. The value of each ability is culturally determined as per the need of society. Thus, Gardner has attempted to explain intelligence in terms of culture. Gardner’s theory of intelligence has seven separate abilities. They are briefly discussed below.

• Linguistic Ability:
  The verbal ability or the ability of a person to deal with grammar, speech and language etc. refers to linguistic intelligence.

Socio-Mathematical Ability:
It refers to the numerical ability of a person or the ability to deal with numbers and digits, solving arithmetic or problems related to mathematics and logical puzzles. According to this approach, good logicians are also good mathematicians. Logic and mathematics both deal with reasoning ability also. So there is a positive correlation between logic and the manipulation of symbols.

Spatial Ability:
It deals with orientation or ability in space reading. People having good spatial ability are hence good at map reading, visual arts, and playing different games like chess “Passa” which require good spatial ability.

Musical Ability:
The ability to be a good musician refers to musical intelligence which is a kind of very specialized ability. This ability is not found in all persons. Hence every one cannot be a good musician.

Bodily-Kinesthetic Ability:
Dancing, athletics, running, mountaineering, swimming activities and specialisation related to bodily movements even surgery depend upon the above ability. These intellectual abilities are located in the motor cortex. But whether these are abilities or skills is still controversial and needs further research in the area.

Inter-personal Ability:
It refers to the ability to deal with and understand others. Inter-personal intellectual abilities deal with understanding others’ behaviour, intentions, attitudes and temperaments. It is held that a successful salesman or a good sales representative, a politician, a doctor, a public relations officer, an insurance agent or a postal agent etc.

Who prove successful in their job and have good interpersonal abilities. These are commonly called skills, but in Gardner’s opinion, they are abilities by birth. So this type of ability determines the relationship between self and outsiders. But some people.

Question 5.
Discuss the studies on the role of the environment in intelligence development.
Answer:
Some studies have been conducted in Odisha on the role of the environment on intellectual development. Das, jaw chuck and Panda (1968) conducted a study on the high and low economic groups of Brahmin and Ilarijan children (High and low castes). They found that the poor Haorijan children scored lowest in the cognitive tests in comparison to children of all other groups.

Though the rich Harijan children performed better than the poor Harij children, they scored lower scores than the Brahim (High caste) children. Rath, Dash, and Dash (1973) conducted a comparative study on the cognitive and intellectual development of some Brahmin, Adivasi and Harij children of Odisha.

Das and Singh’s (1976) study on rural and urban Brahmin and Harijan children indicated that there was no difference in the intelligence of urban grade, Brahmin and Harijan children. But the rural Brahmin children scored higher in intelligence tests than the rural Harijan children. Jack and Mohanti (1974) conducted a study on Low Socioeconomic status and progressive Retardation in cognitive skills.

They found that children of high SES performed better in every respect in cognitive skills. Surprisingly, they found that lower SES children of higher age groups showed poor performance in comparison to lower age groups. Thus they found that children of higher age groups of low SES show slower progress in cognitive development in comparison to higher SES groups.

Culture:
There is very little empirical study on the influence of culture on the development of intelligence. But it has been observed that different cultures lead to the development of different patterns of ability. This is because a particular type of environment requires a particular type of adaptive behaviour. For this adjustment, one has to accelerate the development of certain abilities.

In another culture, certain other abilities are developed. ?Comparison of abilities necessary in different cultures proves this fact. In this connection, the study conducted by Straus (1951) is notable where intelligence test scores of college freshmen in Ceylon and the United States were compared. The Ceylonese students scored consistently higher scores than the United States students.

Secondly, the Ceylonese students scored higher in the language items compared to the Americans, although the test was given in English. This higher score on the Ceylonese people intelligence test is attributed to the emphasis on verbal achievement in Ceylonese culture. The influence of cultural factors on intelligence was also proved during I World War. In general, blacks did poorly than whites.

Sex Differences:
Although early studies do not point out any striking difference in the I.Q. of boys and girls, some recent studies indicate several interesting sex differences in intelligence. By using modem measuring instruments primary mental abilities have been measured. In a study by Hobson (1947) primary mental ability tests were conducted on three successive junior high classes in Brookline.

Results showed boys being superior in spatial intelligence, and in rote memory, reasoning and word fluency. Boys did better than girls in verbal comprehension. But no significant difference in numerical ability was noticed. Havighurst and Breese (1949) administered the Thurstone battery of primary mental abilities test to all thirteen years old children in amid western community of 6,000 persons.

Girls surpassed boys in number, word, fluency, reasoning and memory. Boys did better than girls in spatial ability. No significant difference was found in the verbal comprehension test. A study on college students by Sweeney (1953) showed men surpassed women in solving problems which required logic and ingenuity. All these studies indicate that girls show superiority in some abilities and boys in others.

These differences cancel each other when general tests are used leading to no general difference between the two sexes in the overall level of intelligence. However, the sex differences in these specific abilities are attributed by some to basic constitutional differences partly and partly to socio-cultural training. A study by Deborah (1977) indicates that the better spatial ability of men may be related to their physiological differences from women.

Health:
Innumerable studies show that health is positively correlated with intelligence. In other words, keeping other factors constant, good general health goes with high intelligence, because superior heredity is related to physical and mental superiority as pointed out by Terman (1925). The relationship between secretions from the endocrine glands and intelligence is not yet clearly established.

As such, there is no evidence, for the common belief that pituitary disorder lowers intelligence. Scholar (1938) has found that persons with a severe pituitary deficiency may actually be above average intelligence. The belief that intelligence does not improve by improving the diets of undernourished children has been supported by investigations on the effects of nutrition on intelligence.

But it has been found that a child’s intelligence may be affected by the quality of the mother’s diet during pregnancy (Harrell, Woodyard and Gates, 1955). The view of some that children suffer from tonsils and adenoids, decayed teeth and rickets have how intelligence is not supported by recent studies.

Family Size:
A low negative correlation has been found between intelligence and the number of siblings particularly in lower-income groups as found by Gille (1954), and Heuyer (1950).

Social Deprivation:
According to some, social experiences are of tremendous importance to intellectual development and this socio-cultural deprivation lowers I.Q. An investigation conducted by Skeels (1966) supplies evidence for this. He found that when the social environment of some children was changed, they received additional stimulation in the new environment.

Their average I.Q. increased by 28 points while the I.Q. of the children who remained in the deprived social environment (orphanage) dropped by 20 points. But this study has raised certain controversial issues regarding the relationship between social deprivation and intellectual development.

It has, however, been concluded that “the effects of social deprivation on the development of intelligence depends in part on how long it is endured”. When children live under deprived circumstances, it may not have any visible effect on their intellectual development, but deprivation for a longer period is assumed to have permanent and significant detrimental effects on intellectual development.

Socio-economic status:
People belonging to upper-class families get more intellectual stimulation and enriched environmental facilities in comparison to persons belonging to the lower class. This is believed to influence their intelligence level in a positive direction. Data collected during Second World War by Harrell and Harell (1945) show that people with higher I.Qs usually fill up professional posts.

The enriched environment included varied factors such as greater availability of educational and instructional materials like books charts, diagrams, and instruments and high parental aspirations. Moreover, the study by Yando, Seitz and Zigler (1979) indicates that children of higher and lower SES bring different attitudes and styles to problem-solving that could affect their performance in intelligence tests.

Question 6.
The determinants of intelligence or factors influencing intelligence.
Answer:
The determinants of intelligence also refer to the factors related to mental development. It is found that in the general population some are of superior intelligence, most are of average intelligence and some are below normal intelligence or are mentally retarded. What are the factors which lead to such variations in human intelligence?

Obviously, heredity and environment are two chief variables which influence the growth and development of intelligence. Intelligence varies with varying influences of heredity and environment. As observations and empirical findings show intelligence is determined by both heredity and environment.

Hereditary Factors:
Several studies have been conducted on identical twins to determine the role of heredity in the development of intelligence. Two important studies may be mentioned in this connection. Newman, Freeman and Ilolzinger (1937) took 19 pairs of identical twins, who were reared separately through adaption into different foster homes.

The findings showed that the intelligence test scores of identical twins reared separately were almost as similar to two scores achieved by the same person at different times. Besides, they were mostly like identical twins reared together. Thus, these investigators concluded that the possession of identical heredity was a factor operating system to determining the development of similar intelligence.

Another recent study was done by Shields (1962). He took 88 pairs of identical twins of which half were reared together and the other half were reared in different homes. The correlations between their intelligence test scores were 77 for those reared together and 76 for those brought up separately. This proves the role of heredity and not an environment in the development of intelligence.

In some other studies, the I.Q. of the child is studied by keeping him in a separate environment, particularly at an early age (pre-school age). But it retains its constancy thereafter even when there is a significant change in the environment. The constancy of I.Q, in spite of the change in the environment, supports the role of strong hereditary influences. A study by Blewett (1954) indicates that intelligence is largely determined by heredity.

Jensen’S Theory:
Prof. Arthur Jensen’s article “How much can we boost: I.Q. and Scholastic achievement” published in Harvard Educational Review (1969) brought a revolution and led to a lot of debate on the role of heredity in the development of intelligence. Jensen has evaluated the findings of ‘Project Head Start’ conducted as a compensatory project to help the socially disadvantaged Negroes and Asiatic origin lower class people.

By means of special education programmes, provision of different incentives, enriched environmental facilities etc. In Jensen’s opinion because of these programmes, there has been no improvement in the intelligence Of disadvantaged and underdeveloped children. Since there has been no cognitive development, it is no use of continuing these developmental programmes, he opined.

But many thought this was an attack on the developmental work of the minority groups, or more correctly, an attack on the minority groups themselves. Jensen states that the I.Q. of Blacks is always less than that of Whites, the reason being that, the standard of living of black people is always lower than that of whites.

Low socio-economic status and deprived environmental facilities for ages have been responsible for this genetic difference in the I.Q. of blacks and whites, Jenson stated. Taking the help of several investigations Jensen has shown that abstract reasoning differs significantly on the basis of class and caste. Jensen’s theory has been severely criticised by many.

Whitten and Kagan (1969) have viewed this theory as “Jensen’s dangerous half-truth”. They hold that there are many other basic factors responsible for the difference in I.Q. of the Negroes and whites than actual intelligence itself and one of them is the cultural variation undoubtedly, they say. Secondly, they say that at least this compensatory project has been very successful in Israel. If it is not successful in other places it is due to organisational defects, they assert. More research in this area is necessary.

Environmental Factors:
Although strong hereditary influence on the growth of intelligence is obvious from these studies, they do not necessarily conclude that poor environmental facilities don’t retard the development of intelligence.

Question 7.
Define intelligence tests and individual tests and verbal or non-verbal tests.
Answer:
Intelligent tests:
Alford Binet (1867 -1911) is the first person who devised systematic tests to measure the intelligence of children the lie was particularly interested in the intellectual differences among individuals. Binet (1905), a french psychologist designed the very first test of intelligence at the request of the Paris school authorities to help them to select children of low intelligence, who could not gain from attending the gene classes in school.

Lewin Terman (1877 -1956) of Stanford University revised Binet’s scale intended for school children in the United States. Tennant, in fact, is responsible for bringing the Binet Test into the mainstream of academic life in America. This revised test was known as Stanford Binet Test. This test was similar to Binet’s 1911 version except that Terman made some changes and added the age placement of many items according to the performance of children in the United States. The test was standardized for the U.S.A. children. This Stanford-Binet test became the model for many intelligence tests developed after that.

Individual Tests:
Particularly those non-verbal tests which require the use of apparatus, become individual tests because it is not possible to conduct tests on 50-60 people using 50-60 pieces of equipment simultaneously. Since most of the non-verbal tests need paper and pencil, they are usually conducted in groups.

Verbal And Non-Verbal Tests:
All verbal tests require tire use of language, understanding and literacy. To avoid the limitations of verbal tests, when the person is illiterate and is of a different language, non-verbal or performance tests are applied. In non-verbal tests, some kinds of motor activity are involved. Motor activities of different difficulty levels are prepared so that they could measure different levels of intelligence. Some examples of verbal and non-verbal tests are given below:

Verbal Tests:

• Opposition in a fixed time limit – Opposite of certain words are to be given.
• Verbal comprehension – Meaning and short explanations have to be given for the words presented in the test.
• Analogies
• Classifications
• Reasoning Test
• Following directions

Non-Verbal Tests:

• Form Board
• Picture completion
• Drawing test
• Alexander’s Pass long test
• Cube Construction test
• Block design test, picture arrangement test
• Progressive matrices test
• Chatteijee’s non-verbal test of intelligence.

Bhogle, Sudha and Jai Prakash Indira (1992) in a study called the performance of Indian children on the Coloured Progressive Matrices developed norms for Raven’s Coloured Progressive Matrices (RCPM) for Indian children by administering it to 248 male and 252 female subjects in the age range of 5-12 years. Age-wise norms and working percentiles have been reported. Comparisons with original norms have been made. The performance of the children in the present sample is found to be comparable to that of the standardized sample.

Question 8.
Discuss theories of intelligence.
Answer:
There are several theories that explain the components of intelligence. There are:
Two-factors theory of spearman:
Spearman (1904) one of the greatest British Psychologists initiated the two-Tractor theory of intelligence. lie held that intelligence consisted of two factors, a general factor (G) and several specific factors (S). Spearman said that there was a general ability employed by people while adjusting to different sorts of intellectual tests. This is a general factor-specific ability called specific factors.

Theory of intelligence by Thorndike:
Thorndike an American Psychologist of eminence holds a different opinion regarding the theory of intelligence. In place of holding a single general factor common to all mental activities, he considers different kinds of mental activities as highly specific in themselves, though they have certain elements in common. These common elements are responsible for the correlation between different performances shown by the same person.

Thorndike holds that the common elements don’t make the whole of intelligence and intelligence into different kinds

• the ability to deal with ideas and symbols
• concrete intelligence or the ability to handle concrete things and situations
• social intelligence or the ability to get on with people.

Theory of Intelligence by Cattell:
According to Raymond B called general intelligence can be divided into two independent parts fluid intelligence and crystallized intelligence.

Points to remember

Question 1.
Nature and operational definition of Intelligence.
Answer:
Geeta is the brightest child I ever saw. Look at her big black eyes; how sharp and expressive they are! She learns a tiling almost before you have told it her. Oh! see how smart Sushil is, you would think he was two years instead of one year. He is S-O- 0 intelligent, so sharp. These are the common expressions we hear from parents, teachers, neighbours and friends regarding various children.

Question 2.
Sternberg’s Triarchic Theory Approach.
Answer:
Sternberg (1985) has attempted to explain the concept of intelligence through his Triarchic theory or Triarchic model of intelligence. This theory holds that there are three types of human intelligence.

Question 3.
Intelligent tests.
Answer:
Alfred Binet (1867 -1911) is the first person who devised systematic tests to measure the intelligence of children. He was particularly interested in the intellectual differences among individuals. Binet (1905), a french psychologist designed the very first test of intelligence at the request of the Paris school authorities to help them to select children of low intelligence, who could not gain from attending the general classes in school.

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Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Solutions Unit 4 British Economic Policies in India (1757-1857 A.D.) Short Answer Questions.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class History Unit 4 British Economic Policies in India (1757-1857 A.D.) Short Answer Questions

Very Short-Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
From the remote past, the Indian villages are seen as which type of unit and which unit was strong in every village?
Answer:
From the remote past, the Indian villages are seen as small republics. The Economic organization was strong in every village.

Question 2.
Regarding village economy which view was given by English Historian Eiphiiie stone?
Answer:
According to the view of Elphine stone “The village clans were more or less capable of using all necessary things within their small Republics”.

Question 3.
What was the Chief necessity of villagers and what was their Chief Occupation?
Answer:
The chief necessity of villagers was food and cloth. Their Chief occupation was cultivation and knitting.

Question 4.
Before the British era crores of people in India were dependent upon which cottage industry?
Answer:
Before the British era crores of people in India were dependent upon the knitting cottage industry.

Question 5.
In the remote past, Muslim and velvet dresses were widely demanded by which country’s eminent people?
Answer:
In the remote past, Muslim and velveteen dresses were widely demanded by the royal, family of Egypt and eminent people of Rome.

Question 6.
When and where flying shuttle and steam Engine was invented?
Answer:
In 1760 Flying shuffles and in 1768 steam Engines were invented in England.

Question 7.
In 1780 which Governor-general has given the calculation that in every year near about how many amount’s gold was supplied to England.
Answer:
In 1780 Governor-general warren Hastings has given calculation that every year about 40 lakh amounts of gold were supplied to England.

Question 8.
Which English personality was aware of the Govt, that the construction of the railway in India would lead to the economic prosperity of Great Britain? At the time which Governor-general railway construction began in India?
Answer:
English personality Sir Row land Macdonald Stephenson was aware of the Govt, that the construction of the railway in India would lead to the economic prosperity of Great Britain. At the time of Governor-general Lord Dalhousie, railway construction began in India.

Question 9.
When the first railway in the world was opened and when the railway construction began in India?
Answer:
The first railway was opened in England in 1825. The railway construction began in India in 1850 A.D.

Question 10.
When was the first railway introduced in India and it connected from which place to which place?
Answer:
the first railway was introduced in India in 1853 A.D. It was the first railway track in Asia. It was connected from Bombay to Thane.

Question 11.
Which scientist Engineer took charge of the telegraph in India and by which A.D. the experimental telegraph lines were established?
Answer:
The scientist Engineer O’Shaughnessy took charge of the telegraph of India. By 1852 the experimental telegraph lines were established.

Question 12.
By which A.D. which gifted man of England introduced penny postage?
Answer:
By 1840 A.D. a gifted man named Rowland Hill introduced in England the system of penny postage.

Question 13.
On which A.D. India got permission to introduce the postal system at which cost?
Answer:
In 1852 A.D. India got permission to introduce the postal system at the cost of half-anna.

Question 14.
When Cornwallis introduced permanent settlement in India and which English administrator helped him?
Answer:
In 1793 A.D. Cornwallis introduced permanent settlement in India. In this work, the English administrator Sir John Shore helped him.

Question 15.
Which A.D. personnel introduced the Rayatwari system in the Baramahal district on an experimental basis?
Answer:
In 1792 A.D. English personnel Thomas Munro and captain Reed introduced the Rayatwari system at the Baramahal district on an experimental basis.

Question 16.
At the time of which Governor general and in which A.D. Mahalwari System was introduced in India?
Answer:
At the time of Governor-general William Bentick in 1833 A.D., the Mahalwari system was introduced in India.

Question 17.
What was defined regarding the “Drain of wealth” by Dadabhal Naroji?
Answer:
The drain of wealth means a part of India’s national wealth was being exported to England for which India got no adequate economic or material returns.

Question 18.
Regarding the sanyasi revolt which the famous novelist elaborately described and what was the name of his book?
Answer:
Regarding the sanyasi revolt, the famous novelist Bankim Chandra Chatterjee has elaborately described in his novel. The name of his book is “Anand Math’’.

Question 19.
When paik Revolt was constituted and who was the chief architect of this revolt?
Answer:
The paik Revolt was constituted in 1817. The Chief Architect of this revolt was Buxi Jagabandhu.

Question 20.
Who was the king of Khurda at the time of the Khuda revolt and when the British captured khurda and took administration?
Answer:
Mukunda Dev II was the king of Khurda at the time of the Khurda Revolt. The British captured khurda and took administration in 1805 A.D.

Question 21.
Who was the magistrate of Cuttack at the time of the Khurda Revolt and after the Revolt who inquired regarding it?
Answer:
Impe was the magistrate of Cuttack at the time of the Khurda Revolt. After the Revolt magistrate water inquired about the cause of the Revolt.

Question 22.
When death occurred to Mukunda Dev II and after his death which son of him got permission from the English to settle at puri palace?
Answer:
In 1817 A.D. Mukunda Deva II was dead. After his death his son, Rama Chandra Dev II got permission from the English to settle in Puir Palace.

Question 23.
The zamindar or Land Lords of Bengal levied more taxes on the Santhals according to which policy and in which portion of the product they had to give as taxes?
Answer:
The zamindar on landlords of Bengal levied more taxes on the Santhalas according to the policy of permanent settlement. They had to give two third of the product as tax.

Question 24.
Who was the leader of the Santhal Revolt what belonged to which ‘village and what was the name of their revolting force?
Answer:
The leader of the Santhal Revolt was siddhu Murmu belonged to the village of Bhagradiha, He constituted a new “Guerilla Force”.

Question 25.
After how many years of the Plassey war which eminent revolt has broken in 1857 AD.
Answer:
After exactly on 100 years after the Plassey war, eminent revolt simply muting was broke in 1857 A.D.

Question 26.
After an eventful reign when Governor-general Dalhousie left India and in nis place who came?
Answer:
After an eventful reign, Governor-general Dalhouse left India on 1856 A.D. In his place, Lord canning came as Governor-general.

Question 27.
Which policy of Dalhousie created terror among the homely kings and which sons of the kings lost their kingdom?
Answer:
The policy “Doctrine of Lapse” created terror among homely kings. The adopted sons of kings lost their kingdoms.

Question 28.
Previously when Hindus were initiated to Christianity, they were debarred of getting hereditary health but in which Governor-general’s time it was reformed by law?
Answer:
Previously when Hindus were initiated to Christianity, they were debarred of getting hereditary wealth but at the time of Governor-general Dalhousie, it was preferred by law.

Question 29.
By the prevailing of which rifle revolt spanking emancipated within the sepoys and which numour continued against this?
Answer:
By the prevailing of Enfield rifle revolt spanking emancipated the sepoys. A rumor continued that in that rifle cow and pig fats assembled.

Question 30.
Where the first symptom of revolt was marked by sepoys early in 1857 and on which date did the open revolt of the sepoys force breaks out at Meerut?
Answer:
The first symptom of the revolt was marked at Barrackpore in Bengal early in 1857. On 10th May 1857, the open revolt of the sepoy force broke out at Meerut.

Question 31.
The rebels quickly captured which palace at Delhi and they proclaimed whom as the Emperor in India?
Answer:
The rebels quickly captured the Mughal palace at Delhi. They proclaimed the old Bahadur Saha II of the Mughal dynasty as the Emperor of India.

Question 32.
In sepoy muting which Rajput warrior directed the course of revolt in Bihar and which warrior gave direction his forces from Kanpur?
Answer:
In sepoy muting, the Rajput warrior Kunwar Singh directed the course of revolt in Bihar. Nana Saheb gave direction to his force from Kanpur.

Question 33.
The sepoys and the revolted people declared who as their Peshawar and followed his leadership how many English soldiers at Kanpur fought for somedays & lastly surrendered?
Answer:
The sepoys and the revolted people declared Natta Sahid as their Peshawar and followed his leadership. There were 400 English soldiers at Kanpur who fought for some days and lastly surrendered.

Question 34.
Which famous Maratha Brahmin where took the leadership of twenty thousand noble sepoys?
Answer:
The famous Maratha Brahmin Tantia Tope at liwalior took the leadership of twenty thousand rebel sepoys.

Question 35.
For which cause Rani Laxmi Bai became the agitator in sepoy mating?
Answer:
After the death of the husband of Rani Laxmi Bai, no permission was given to enthrone her adopted son of her. To agitate this Rani Laxmi Bai entangled herself in mutiny.

Question 36.
Which British General resisted Tantia Tope and was defeated and at last the forces of Tantia Tope joined with which forces?
Answer:
British General Windham resisted Tantia Tope and was defeated. At last, the forces of Tantia Tope joined with the forces of Rani Laxmi Bai.

Question 37.
At the time of the fall of Delhi which able administrators were in charge of Punjab and Bombay’s presidency and made their areas calm and quiet?
Answer:
At the time of the fall of Delhi the able administrator of Punjab was John Lawrence and in Bombay’s presidency was lord Elphinstone. They were capable to make their area calm and quiet.

Question 38.
Which India nucers helped the British in the Revolt of 1857?
Answer:
The Indian leaders who helped the British in the Revolt of 1857 were the Nizam of Hyderabad, the Begum of Bhopal, the kind of Nepal, and the Maratha leader Sindhia.

Question 39.
Which English General proceeded from Punjab to Delhi and blew up which famous Gate of Delhi?
Answer:
The English General Nicholson, a brave soldier proceeded from Punjab to Delhi and blew up the famous Kashmir Gate of Delhi.

Question 40.
Lastly, the English took which Emperor as a prisoner, and his two sons and a grandson were shot dead by which English General?
Answer:
Lastly, the English took Emperor Bahadur Shah II as a prisoner. His two sons and a graton were shot dead by English General Hudson.

Question 41.
The furious wars of which two rebels worried the British Generals greatly.
Answer:
The furious wars of two rebels i.e. Rani Laxmi Bai and Tantia Tope worried the British Generals Greatly.

Question 42.
When and in which battlefield did Rani Laxmi Bai become dead?
Answer:
In 17th June 1858 in the battlefield of Kalapitha at the time of war became dead.

Question 43.
In sepoy mutiny which warrior after some defeats was caught and hanged and what happened to Nana Saheb?
Answer:
In sepoy mutiny, the warrior Tantia Tope after some defeats was caught and hanged. Nana Saheb was defeated and fled away dense forests of Nepal and erased death.

Question 44.
At Orissa in which region the revolt continued for the next four years and which warrior took the leadership of this movement?
Answer:
At Orissa in the Sambalpur region, the revolt continued for the next four years. In this movement warrior, Bira Surendra Sai took the leadership.

Question 45.
In the furious condition of the revolt who was the only Englishman who showed some kindness towards the people and for this in which name he was famous?
Answer:
In the various condition of the revolt, Governor-general Lord Canning was the only Englishman who showed some kindness towards the people. For this, he was famous for “Benign canning”.

Question 46.
After the 1857 Revolt, the Indian administration withdrew from whom and entrusted upon with authority?
Answer:
After the 1857 Revolt, the Indian administration withdrew from the East India Company. The administration was entrusted to the British crown.

Question 47.
After the 1857 revolt, the representative of the British monarch got which designation and who was the first representative in India?
Answer:
After the 1857 revolt, the representative of the British monarch got designation as a “viceroy”. Lord Canning was the first viceroy in India.

Question 48.
At where viceroy Lord Canning when arranged the grand Durbar and read out the proclamation?
Answer:
At Allahabad viceroy Lord canning on 1st November. 1858 arranged the grand Durbar and read out the proclamation.

Question 49.
When and where Mohan Das Karamchand Gandhi was born?
Answer:
Mohan das Karam Chand Gandhi was bom on 2nd October 1869 at Porbandar of Gujurat.

Question 50.
What was the name of the father of Mohandas and at where he secured the post of Dewan?
Answer:
Karamchand Gandhi was the name of the father of Mohandas. He sourced the post of Dewan at Porbandar.

Question 51.
Which author’s English translation of Geeta had a deep impact upon the mind of Mohandas and which great man’s life and message created a deep impression upon him?
Answer:
English author Edwin Arnold’s English translation of Geeta had a deep impact on the mind of Mohandas. Great men like Gautama Buddha’s life and Jesus Christ’s message created deep impressions upon his mind.

Question 52.
By whose request Gandhi went to South Africa and when he proceeded to South Africa?
Answer:
By a Muslim gentleman’s request, Gandhi went to South Africa. He proceeded to South Africa in 1853.

Question 53.
Where their public address of Gandhiji was the first in his life?
Answer:
The public address of Gandhiji at Pretoria in South Africa was the first in his life.

Question 54.
At South Africa, the English Government oppressed the Indians in which A.O. which law was declared?
Answer:
At South Africa the English Government oppressed the Indians in 1906 A.D. “Black Law” was declared.

Question 55.
At first which Indian enforced which title to Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi?
Answer:
At first Rabindra Nath Tagore enforced the title of “Mahatma” to Mohandas Karam Chand Gandhi.

Question 56.
The English Government appointed a committee under which justice and when?
Answer:
The English Government appointed a committee under justice Rowlatt on 1919 A.D.

Question 57.
Where and when the Jalliana-walating Massacre occurred?
Answer:
In the city of Amritsar of Punjab, Jallianawalabag Massacre occurred on the Hindu New years day i.e. 13th April 1919.

Question 58.
When Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms was declared and it came in which shape?
Answer:
On 1919 Montague Chelmsford Reforms was declared and it came in the shape of the Government of India Act 1919.

Question 59.
When by the inspiration of Mahatma Gandhi which movement declared?
Answer:
On September 1920 the inspiration of Mahatma Gandhi “Non-Co-operation, Movement”, was declared.

Question 60.
For which cause did the Indian – Muslims wage a Revolt against the British and this Revolt was famous as which Revolt?
Answer:
After the first world war, the victorious British Government prepared to punish Turkey’s Sultan. For this cause, the Indian Muslims wages a Revolt against the British and this Revolt was famous as the “Khilafat Movement”.

Question 61.
When and where at the session of congress the decision of the country vide non-cooperation movement was accepted? On that eventful session how many Odisha representatives joined?
Answer:
On 1920 last week of December at the Nagpur session of congress, the decision of the country-wide Non-cooperation movement was accepted. In that eventful session, 35 Odisha representatives joined.

Question 62.
In which session of congress “Utkal state congress committee” was formulated and who was the first president of this committee?
Answer:
In the Nagpur session of congress “Utkal state congress committee” was formulated. Gopabandhu Das was the first president of this committee.

Question 63.
When Mahatma Gandhi came to Odisha and what was the reason behind his coming to Odisha?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi came to Odisha in the last week of Mach 1921. One week staying at Odisha he urged his anticipation to all people of Odisha to involve in the Non-cooperation movement.

Question 64.
On which year Simon Commission entered in India and all over India which shout accelerated?
Answer:
In the year 1928 A.D. Simon commission entered in India. All over India the shouts “Simon, go back” accelerated.

Question 65.
On 1929 December 29 where an important session of congress was arranged and in that session who was the president?
Answer:
On 1929 December 29 at Lahore in Punjab, an important session of congress was arranged. In that historic session, Jawaharlal Nehru was the president.

Question 66.
At the last date of the Lahore session i.e. on 31st December 1929 who waged on an important proposal regarding which?
Answer:
At last date of the Lahore session i.e. on 31st December 1929, Mahatma Gandhi waged an important proposal of “ Pooma Swaraj” or complete independence.

Question 67.
At the beginning of the New year i.e. on 1930 A.D. January 26 was declared as which day? Who raised the National Flag?
Answer:
At the beginning of the New year i.e. on 1930 A.D. January 26 was declared as “Pooma Swaraj” on Independence Day. Congress president Jawaharlal Nehru raised the National Flag.

Question 68.
After how many years of the Non-cooperation movement which new movement began under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi?
Answer:
After 10 years of Non- cooperation movement civil disobedience movement began under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.

Question 69.
On which year and on which date a long foot journey was held from Sabarmati Ashram to beach Dandi? What was the name of that historic journey?
Answer:
On 1930, March 12 a long foot journey was held from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi. The name of that historic journey was “Dandi March”.

Question 70.
At which sea coast place of Baleswar District of Odisha the agitators broke civil law under whose leadership?
Answer:
At the sea coast place of Inchudi of Baleswar District of Odisha, the agitators broke civil law under Acharya Harihar Das’s leadership.

Question 71.
On which year the only representative of congress joined in the second Round Table conference?
Answer:
On 1931 the only representative of congress Mahatma Gandhi joined in the second Round Table Conference at London.

Question 72.
By disappointment, Mahatma Gandhi returned from London. On his way to India he met which French thinker and author and great dictator of Italy?
Answer:
By disappointment, Mahatma Gandhi returned from London. On his way to India, he met Roma Rolla, the famous French thinker, author, and great dictator of Italy Benito Mussolini.

Question 73.
After a judicial discussion in between Gandhi and Ambedkar which pact was signed? This pact was famous as which pact?
Answer:
After a judicial discussion in between Gandhiji and Ambedkar on 1932 September 24, a pact was signed. This pact was famous as the “Poona Pact”.

Question 74.
During the last part of 1932 at England once again a Round Table conference was held and that was which Round Table? In this conference a law was signed and what was that?
Answer:
During the last part of 1932 in England once again a Round Table Conference was held and that was Third Round Table Conference. In this conference, a law was signed as the 1935 India Administration Act.

Question 75.
Where and when at the Muslim league conference did Mohammad Ali Jinnah wage the proposal of Pakistan country?
Answer:
At Lahore in the Muslim League conference on 1940, Mohammad Ah Jinnah wages the proposal of Pakistan country.

Question 76.
After the acceptance of Mount Batten’s plan when the British Parliament recommended that plan and what was the name of that planning Law?
Answer:
After the acceptance of Mount Batten’s plan in 1947 July, the British Parliament recommended that plan. That plan came to be regarded as the “1947 Indian Independence Law”.

Question 77.
Regarding British sovereignty and the willingness of princely states what was written in “1947 India Independence Law”?
Answer:
In the “1947 India Independence Law” it was written that for all times to come England last its sovereignty of India. Regarding the princely state, it was noted that if. they want they can assemble with either to India or Pakistan or remain independent.

Question 78.
For the solution of princely state problems which leader’s bold step worked accurately? He was renowned as which name?
Answer:
For the solution of the princely state’s problems, Sardar Ballavbhai Patel’s bold steps worked accurately. He was renowned as the “Iron man of India”.

Question 79.
On August 7 Mohammad Ali Jinnah flew form Delhi to which place and he was coronated to which post?
Answer:
On August 7 Mohammad Ali Jinnah flew from Delhi to Lahore. After seven days he was coronated to Governor general of Pakistan.

Question 80.
Before independence, Mahatma Gandhi declared to whom as his political successor. After independence who got the portfolio of Prime Minister in the largest democracy of the world?
Answer:
Before independence, Mahatma Gandhi declared Jawaharlal Nehru as his political successor. After independence Jawaharlal Nehru got the portfolio of Prime Minister in the largest democracy of the world.

Question 81.
Which time is regarded as the “Gandhi Era” and in which important revolts was he involved?
Answer:
The time from 1920 A.D. to 1947 A.D. is regarded as the “ Gandhi Era”. By his leadership important revolts like the non-cooperation movement, Civil Disobedience Movement and Quit India Movement was organized.

Short-Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
The precondition of permanent settlement in India.
Answer:
Clive, the founder of the British Empire, could not give to Bengal a good land system. The revenue was collected from peasants through oppressive agents. Warren Hastings tried his best to bring a better system. He established a Board of Revenue. He appointed European District collectors to remain in charge of revenue collection.

But still, the difficulties continued. The real problem of the Government was how to go to the countless villages and get land revenue from millions of peasants according to the size and nature of their lands. It was impossible for the European District collector, who was only one for each district to do that work through his subordinate officers.

Question 2.
Sir Johan shore and active participation in introducing permanent settlement.
Answer:
In this work, the Governor General was helped by an able administrator of that time, John Shore. He justified the need for a permanent class of landlords or zamindars for the security of government with respect to its revenues and the security and protection of its subjects. In Bengal before the British conquest, there were old zamindar families who enjoyed hereditary rights on lands for a long.

But after the country was conquered by the English those zamindars disappeared. Their lands were taken over by the Government and the Government collected revenues by various methods as already discussed. Cornwallis and Shore wanted to receive that class and give them the responsibility of revenue collection. So at last Cornwallis issued a proclamation in 1793, introducing the permanent settlement.

Question 3.
An important episode in Sanyasi Rebellion.
Answer:
The sannyasi and Fakir Rebellion is an important episode in the early colonial rule in Bengal, The rebellion started in 1750 onwards but took a violent turn in 1773 when warren Hastings assumed the Governor Generalship of Bengal. The Movement covered a wide range of Bengal and Bihar and continued for a long time. There is also a distorted reflection of rebellion in Bankim Chandra’s Anandamath for which Bankim Chandra has been accused.

The present article implores how the sannyasi is and Fakirs launched their campaign in an anti-colonial attitude against the British Raj and their trusted zamindars. It was only possible due to their wide range of activities and networks. The religious pilgrimage was no doubt a factor in combining the sanyasis and Fakirs to launch a spontaneous movement for a long time.

Question 4.
Involvement of Bihar region in Sanyasi Rebellion.
Answer:
Bihar was situated in such a geographical location that it was not difficult for the Fakirs and sannyasis to establish close links with Morung and the territories adjoining Nepal. This explains why the Fakirs and Sannyasis were chased, in northern or eastern Bengal by the company’s forces, they took shelter in Bihar and from there they escaped either to northern India or to Nepal.

From their centers in Northern India like Allahabad, Benaras, and Mirzapur, their routes to their principal spoliation in Bengal ran through Bihar, and herein lies the importance of Bihar in the history of Fakir and Sannyasi uprising. Besides they had to fortify their subsidiary centers in various parts of Bihar and maintained active contacts with Nepal for purpose of trade and religious pilgrimage.

Question 5.
Introduction of paik movement.
Answer:
The paiks were the traditional landed militia of Odisha. They served as warriors and were charged with policing functions during peacetime. The paiks were organized into three ranks distinguished by their occupation and the weapons they wielded. These were the Paharis the bearers of shields and the khanda (sword), the Banuas who led distant expeditions and used matchlocks, and the Dhenkiy as archers who also performed different duties in Odisha armies.

The conquest of Odisha by the East India Company in 1803 and the dethronement of the Raja of Khurda began the fall of the power and prestige of the paikas. The attitude of the company to the paiks was expressed by Walter Ewer on the commission that looked into the causes of the Rebellion, thus.

Now there is no need for the assistance of paiks at Khurda. It is dangerous to keep them in the British armed forces. Thus they should be treated and dealt with as common Ryots and land revenue and other taxes should be collected from them. They must be deprived of their formed Jagir lands (rent-free land given to the paiks for their military service to the state).

Within a short period of time, the name of paik has already been forgotten. But still now where the paiks are living they have retained their previous aggressive nature. But still now where the paiks are living they have retained their previous aggressive nature. In order to break their poisonous teeth the British police must be highly alert to keep the paiks under their control for a pretty long period, unless the paik community is rained completely the British rule cannot run smoothly.

Question 6.
Cause of paik Rebellion.
Answer:
The paik rebellion had several social, economic, and political reasons. The paiks were alienated by the British regime who took over the hereditary rent-free lands granted to them after the conquest of Khurda. They were also subjected to extortion and oppression at the hands of the company government and its servant.

Had conciliatory measures been adopted towards the paiks from the beginning, it is possible that they would have become a source of strength to the company rule in Odisha. The extortionist land revenue policy of the company affected the peasants and the zamindars alike. A source of much consternation for the common people was the rise in price of salt due to taxes imposed on it by the new government.

The company also abolished the system of courier currency that had existed in Odisha prior to its conquest and required that taxes be paid in silver. This caused much popular hardship and discontent. In 1804 the Raja of Khurda planned a rebellion against the British in alliance with the paiks. But the plot was soon discovered and the Raja’s territory was confiscated.

Question 7.
Leader and participants in paik rebellion.
Answer:
The paiks were led by Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhar Mohapatra, Bhramarabar Ray the formed Bakshi or commander of the forces of the Raja of Khurda. Jagabandhu’s familiar estate of killa Rorang was taken over by the British in 1814, reducing him to penury. When the Rebellion broke in March 1817, paiks came together under his leadership.

Raja Mukunda Deva, the last king of Khurda was another leader of the Indian rebels. The rebellion enjoyed widespread support in Oriya Society with feudal Chiefs, Zamindars, and the common people of Odisha participating in it. The Zamindars of Haripur, Mrichpur Golra, Balarampur, Budnakera, and Rupsa Supported the paiks – while the revolt started from Banapur and Khurda.

It quickly spread to other parts of Odisha such as Puri, Pipili, and Cuttack and to several remote villages, including Kanika, Kujang, and Pattamundai. The Rajas of Kanika, Kujang, Nayagarh, and Ghumusur aided Jagabandhu and Dalabehera Mirhaidar Ali of Jadupur was an important Muslim rebel.

Question 8.
The effects of Paik Rebellion.
Answer:
In May 1817, the British Posted Judges to Khurda to sentence the captured rebels. The rebels were awarded sentences of death, transportation, and long-time imprisonment. Between 1818 and 1826, the company’s forces undertook combing operations in the jungles of Khurda to capture and put to death rebels who had managed to escape.

In these operations, numerous paiks were killed. Their leader Jagabandhu surrendered to the British in 1825 and lived as their prisoner in Cuttack until 1829 when he died. On capturing Puri, Jagabandhu offered to rain state Raja Mukunda Deva. Whom the British had dethroned in 1804 and exiled to Puri as the Raja of Khurda.

Although the turned down the other and asked for British assistance, he was arrested when the British retook the town and was imprisoned at Cuttack. The Raja died a British prisoner in November 1817. The East India Company also appointed a commissioner of Cuttack Robert Ker to ensure. Such a rebellion would not repeat itself.

These attempts remained half-hearted at best, the British viewing Odisha largely as a convent land link between their presidencies of Madras and Bengal. Odisha continued to be wracked by localized insurgencies including at Tapanga in 1827 and the Banapur Rebellion of 1835. The revenue policies of the company in Odisha, which was a major cause of hardship to the people, remained unchanged.

Question 9.
The background of the Santhal Rebellion.
Answer:
The uprising of the Santhals began as a tribal reaction to and despotic British revenue system, usury practices, and the Zamindari system in India, in the tribal best of what was then known as the Bengal presidency. It was a revolt against the oppression of the colonial ruse propagated through a distorted revenue system, enforced by the local Zamindars, the police, and the courts of the legal system set up by the British.

Before the British advent in India, residing in the hilly districts of Manbhum, Barahum, Chhotanagpur, Palamu, and Birbhum. They lived an agrarian lifestyle by clearing forest patches, cultivating, and hunting for subsistence. But as the agents of the new colonial rule. Claimed their rights on the lands, the Santhal retreated to the hills of Rajmahal. After a brief period, the British operatives with their native undersigns i.e. the local landlords lay claim on this new land as well.

Zamindars and the money lenders all used them for goods lent to them on loans, through corrupt practices of the money lenders, the loan grew to prohibitive proportions, for repaying which entire families had to work as bonded laborers. This dispossession turned the Santhals into nebess and finally, they took on oath to launch an attack on the ruling authority i.e. the British.

Question 10.
Mangal Pandey and Nana Sahib.
Answer:
He was spray served under the English East India Company. He provided the immediate spark to the revolt of 1857. He shut at the chief of the 34th regiment at Barrackpore. Nana Saheb was a rebel in the revolt of 1857. He was the adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II. He remained in charge of the Kanpur center during the Revolt of 1857.

Question 11.
Reason for modern means of communication.
Answer:
In order to facilitate the shipment of raw material at a low cost facilitate the shipment of raw materials at a low cost, the British constructed roads, and railways so that goods could be sent to ports quickly. In order to promote their own commercial interest in India.

Question 12.
Ryotwari and Mahalwari system.
Answer:
It was a land revenue system introduced by the British in the Madres region. Under this, the govt made settlements directly with the ryots or cultivators to pay the revenue for a period of 30 years. It was a land revenue system. In the northern part of India, the British introduced the malware system. The settlement was made between the govt and the mahals or groups of villages.

Question 13.
Laxman Naik.
Answer:
Laxman Naik was a hero of the Quit India movement in Odisha. He was the leader of the tribal groups of Koraput. The tribal people under the leadership of Laxman Naik defied the Govt, most heroically while the course of the revolution of 1942 was in full swing in other places of Odisha.

Question 14.
Non-cooperation Movement in Odisha.
Answer:
Utkal Pradesh congress committee was formed and Gopabandhu Das became its president. The Utkal Pradesh Congress committee prepared grounds in Odisha for the Non-Cooperation movement.

Question 15.
The immediate cause of the Revolt of 1857.
Answer:
An immediate cause was provided by the introduction of cartridges that had greased paper covers. At that time a new rifle called the Enfield rifle was supplied to the soldiers. The cartridges to be used in die rifles were greased with fat. Before fitting in the cartridges in the refile, the soldiers had to bite off their ends with their teeth. A rumor spread that the cartridges were greased with the fat of cows and pigs.

The soldiers easily believed that it had been intentionally done by the British to defile their religions. It is clear that it was taboo for a Hindu Soldier to bite the Fat of a cow and for a Muslim soldier to bite the fat of a pig. Both refused to use these cartridges. When force was used against them they were further angered by the British.

Question 16.
Queen Victoria’s proclamation.
Answer:
Queen victoria’s proclamation was made by lord canning in a grand Durbar at Allahabad on 1st November 1858. According to it. The decision was taken to end the company’s rule in India. Henceforth the Indian territories would not be annexed to the British crown. The Indian princes were given the right to adopt sons and successors.

The people of India would be eligible for all Public offices. People were guaranteed full religious freedom. Henceforth; the GoVt. would not interfere in their religious beliefs and practices. The last not the least, the proclamation promised that the Govt, of India, would do its best to benefit and benevolence of the Indians.

Question 17.
Development of communication.
Answer:
The British built a network of roads and railways in order to promote their own commercial interest in India. The vast network of roads and railways and postal system helped the British to maintain rigid administrative control over India. The first railway line ran between Bombay and Thane. Lord Dalhousie promoted this system, which benefited the British administration and business.

On the contrary, people living in faraway places could travel freely and mix with one another. Regional feelings began to disappear and people felt for the first time that they belonged to one country. Thus, it made it possible to mobilize public opinion on a national scale, Indeed it was a factor in the rise of Nationalism in India.

Question 18.
Drain of wealth.
Answer:
Drain of wealth means a part of India’s national wealth was being exported to England for which India got no adequate economic or material returns. It was the root cause of poverty in India. Dada Bhai Naoroji the grand old man of India, was the first person who propounded this theory. The Indian wealth was siphoned of to the British municipality drain. The moderate leaders drew the attention of the mass.

They emphasized that the drain was not only the loss of wealth but also the loss of capital. The drain caused a loss of employment and income. It was responsible for the slow growth of modern industry in India. The drain of wealth also affected the peasants directly. The high rate of land revenue was due to the drain. Thus, this drain theory created awareness among the common people later on.

Question 19.
Jalianawalla Bagh Massacre.
Answer:
On 13 th April 1919 people organized a peaceful general meeting in a small garden in Amritsar, Punjab against the proclamation issued by General Dyer which, forbade public meetings and processions. People were not adequately informed of this proclamation. The meeting place was an enclosed plot of ground known as JalianawaflaBagh.

General O Dyer came with troops blocking the only exit of the compound and ordered his troops 40 open fire on the crowd without warning. A large number of people were killed and wounded in cold blood. This mass killing is known as the Jalianawalla Bagh massacre in history.

Question 20.
Khilafat Movement.
Answer:
The policy of non-violent, noncooperation was used in India for the first time is the Khilafat movement. Turkey had fought against the British in the First World War. At the end of the war, Turkey was defeated. The British divided the Turkish empire and abolished the epithet ‘khalifa’ who was regarded as the spiritual head of the Muslim world. Asa an impact of it Turkey started a movement against the British.

To support the people of Turkistan, Gandhiji started Khilafat Movement in India. Undoubtedly the khilafat movement launched by Gandhiji strengthened national feeling, fostered sentiments of Hindu – Muslim unity, and led afresh to political awakening. Thus, this movement prepared the ground for Non-Cooperation Movement in India in 1921.

Question 21.
Chouri Chaura incident.
Answer:
While Noncooperation Movement was going on violence broke out at Chori Chaura – a village near Gorakhpur district of Uttar Pradesh in the year 1922 in the month of February, where evident mob stormed and burnt a police station and killed twenty-two policemen Gandhiji was the opposite of violence. He was, therefore, visibly moved and very disappointed. He realized that the country was not yet ripe for a non-violent struggle. Suddenly, he announced the suspension of the Movement.

Question 22.
Utkal Pradesh congress committee.
Answer:
The Utkal Pradesh congress committee prepared grounds in Odisha for the Non-Cooperation Movement Gopabandhu Das was its president. The committee served twin purposes. First to make a grand success of the Non-Cooperation Movement and second for the linguistic unity of the Oriya people.

It directed the people to total Non-Cooperation with the Government, Hundred Oriyas enrolled in to the committee as volunteers to become congress workers. Most parts of Odisha came under the spell of the Gandhian Struggle due to the effects of the Utkal Pradesh Congress committee.

Question 23.
Dandi March.
Answer:
The civil Disobedience Movement began with the Dandi march of Mahatma Gandhi. He began his historic movement.

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Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Solutions Unit 2 Perceptual Process Objective Questions.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class Psychology Unit 2 Perceptual Process Objective Questions

Multiple Choice Type Questions.

Question 1.
Perception is a ________.
(a) Mental process
(b) Physical process
(c) Motor skill
(d) Psychophysiological process.
Answer:
(a) Mental process

Question 2.
Illusions are _________.
(a) False perception
(b) Wrong perception
(c) wrong belief
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) Wrong perception

Question 3.
Hallucination mostly occurs in people suffering from:
(a) Hysteria
(b) Paranoia
(c) Schizophrenia
(d) Myopia
Answer:
(d) Myopia

Question 4.
One of the processes involved in the formation of a concept is:
(a) Classification
(b) Association
(c) Environment
(d) Generalisation
Answer:
(d) Generalisation

Question 5.
One’s ability to distinguish five details is called:
(a) Attention
(b) Sensation
(c) Visual Activity
(d) Apperception
Answer:
(c) Visual Activity

Question 6.
Perception of figure and ground is a function of:
(a) Past experience
(b) Structure of the nervous system
(c) Sensation pattern
(d) Insightful learning
Answer:
(b) Structure of the nervous system

Question 7.
The monocular cue to distance in the perspective diagram is:
(a)Terial perspective
(b) Linear Perspective
(c) Gradient of texture
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a)Terial perspective

Question 8.
Pilots usually rely mere on their instruments than on their perception on because of:
(a) Lack of any motion perception
(b) His movement perception
(c) The illusion of induced movements of objects
(d) Rules of the flight manual
Answer:
(a) Lack of any motion perception

Question 9.
Illusion is a perception:
(a) Wrong
(b) False
(c) Correct
(d) Apperception
Answer:
(a) Wrong

Question 10.
Hallucination is more often found in:
(a) Normals
(b) Neurotics
(c) Schizophrenics
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Schizophrenics

Question 11.
Hallucination is a_____ perception.
(a) False
(b) Correct
(c) Wrong
(d) Movement
Answer:
(a) False

Question 12.
Perception is more determined by:
(a) emotion
(b) past experience
(c) thinking
(d) intelligence
Answer:
(b) past experience

Question 13.
The basic movement perception used in films is:
(a) visual illusion
(b) motion
(c) perceptual constancy
(d) stroboscopic motion
Answer:
(b) motion

Question 14.
Perceiving a rope as a snake is:
(a) perception
(b) illusion
(c) hallucination
(d) sensation
Answer:
(b) illusion

Question 15.
Perceiving a rope as a rope is:
(a) hallucination
(b) imaginary
(c) perception
(d) illusion
Answer:
(c) perception

Question 16.
When a rope is confused to be a nake, it is called:
(a) illusion
(b) image
(c) hallucination
(d) delusion
Answer:
(a) illusion

Question 17.
Perception involves _____ process.
(a) receptor
(b) symbolic
(c) affective
(d) all These
Answer:
(d) all These

Question 18.
The tendency to see the immobility of objects is called:
(a) color constancy
(b) size constancy
(c) location constancy
(d) brightness constancy
Answer:
(c) location constancy

Question 19.
If a person gets a certain sensation that is not physically present in his environment it is due to the:
(a) illusion
(b) delusion
(c) hypnotism
(d) hallucination
Answer:
(d) hallucination

Question 20.
If an object is perceived without any stimulus value it is called:
(a) delusion
(b) hypnotism
(c) illusion
(d) hallucination
Answer:
(d) hallucination

Question 21.
An object in dim illumination can be perceived if is:
(a) familiar
(b)unlluniliar
(c) huge size
(d) colored
Answer:
(a) familiar

Question 22.
A triangle is perceived as a triangle ¡n whatever position related to:
(a) brightness constancy
(b) size constancy
(c) color constancy
(d) shape constancy
Answer:
(d) shape constancy

Question 23.
The principle of proximity in perception suggests that an object is more likely to be perceived if:
(a) it is huge
(b) it is nearer to the perceiver
(c) it is close to the perceiver
(d) the stimuli are close together they, tend to be grouped together.
Answer:
(c) it is close to the perceiver

Question 24.
Apperception refers to the process of:
(a) not allowing new
(b) associating new ideas with old one
(c) substituting new ideas in lace of old ones
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) substituting new ideas in lace of old ones

Question 25.
When two stimuli are presented and one perceives one thing in relation to the other it is called:
(a) Simultaneous perception
(b) Figure-ground perception
(c) Consecutive perception
(d) Successive perception
Answer:
(b) Figure-ground perception

Question 26.
Muller Lyer illusion occurs because of:
(a) Visual defect
(b) errors in perception
(c) abnormality
Answer:
(b) errors in perception

Question 27.
Muller Lyer illusion is ________ illusion.
(a) arithmetical
(b) geometrical
(c) geographical
Answer:
(b) geometrical

Question 28.
The number of items a person can perceive at a single glance is called:
(a) Span of immediate memory
(b) Span of attention
(c) Span of perception
(d) Immediate perception
Answer:
(d) Immediate perception

Question 29.
The theory of organization in perception has been advocated by:
(a) Behaviourist
(b)Associationists
(c) Gestalts
(d) Functionalists.
Answer:
(c) Gestalts

Question 30.
Perception is the interpretation of sensation in the light of:
(a) Present experience
(b) Immediate experience
(c) Past experience
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Past experience

Question 31.
The mechanism through which the ‘O’ converts a sense impression to perception is called the __________.
(a) Process of sensation
(b) Process of attention
(c) Process of perception
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Process of attention

Question 32.
Perception involves the _________ process.
(a) receptor
(b) symbolic
(c) effect or
(d) all of the above.
Answer:
(d) all of the above.

Question 33.
Perceptual organization is best explained through the:
(a) Phi phenomenon
(b) Closure
(c) Movement
(d) Figure and ground phenomenon.
Answer:
(d) Figure and ground phenomenon.

Question 34.
A pattern will have the advantage of being perceived as a ___________ if it can be formulated by combining all the elements, present in the field:
(a) Part
(b) Whole
(c) Both whole and part.
Answer:
(b) Whole

Question 35.
The organization helps in ___________ perception.
(a) quick
(b) delayed
(c) wrong
(d) false
Answer:
(a) quick

Question 36.
The functional factors of perception lie _________ the individual:
(a) Within
(b) Outside
(c) In the environment of the individual
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Within

Question 37.
Experiments on value and need as organizing factors in perception have been conducted by:
(a) Bruner and Goodman
(b) Kofika
(c) Pinter and Anderson
(d) Muller and Lyer
Answer:
(a) Bruner and Goodman

Question 38.
The tendency of a percept to remain the same from movement to movement and from time to time refers to __________ of perception :
(a) Closure
(b) Movement
(c) Constancy
(d) Good figure
Answer:
(c) Constancy

Question 39.
The perception of movement in a stationary spot is called:
(a) Geometrical illusion
(b) Delusion
(c) Phi phenomenon
(d) Auto kinetic phenomenon.
Answer:
(c) Phi phenomenon

Question 40.
Division of attention
(a) Does not affect the efficiency
(b) Affects efficiency
(c) Divisions of attention is impossible
Answer:
(b) Affects efficiency

Question 41.
Attention is a __________.
(a) Preperceptive attitude
( b) Learning skill
(c) Mechanical process
Answer:
(a) Preperceptive attitude

Question 42.
Habit is a _________ determinant of attention.
(a) Objective
(b) Subjective
(c) Quantitative
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Subjective

Question 43.
Which of the following psychologist can be associated with a span of attention?
(a) Marrow
(b) Watson
(c) Miller
(d) Mc Gaoch
Answer:
(c) Miller

Question 44.
__________conducted a test on shifting of attention.
(a) Linton
(b) Kholer
(c) Hersey
(d) Urban & Schitch
Answer:
(d) Urban & Schitch

Question 45.
Those factors which lie in the stimulus is of great importance in determining the __________ attention.
(a) Nature
(b) Quality
(c) Directions
Answer:
(a) Nature

Question 46.
An auditory nerve as connected to__________.
(a) acceipital lobe
(b) parietal lobe
(c) temporal lobe
(d) frontal lobe
Answer:
(c) temporal lobe

Question 47.
Receptors are the structure that is _________ to physical energy.
(a) affective
(b) assertive
(c) reactive
(d) cooperative
Answer:
(c) reactive

Question 48.
___________ conducted several experiments on cerebral localization.
(a) Lashley
(b) Maslow
(c) Proca
(d) Sherrington
Answer:
(a) Lashley

Question 49.
Complex learning does not depend upon a definite structure of specified areas of the body. Who among the following said the above?
(a) Lashley
(b) Sherington
(c)Franz
(d) Cock
Answer:
(a) Lashley

Question 50.
Currently, neuropsychology is being studied in relation to:
(a) Psychology
(b)Anthropology
(c) Sociology
(d) Neurosurgery
Answer:
(d) Neurosurgery

Question 51.
The receptive organ is that organ of the human body which:
(a) Receive stimulation
(b) Sends the response
(c) Receives the response
Answer:
(a) Receive stimulation

Question 52.
A neuron is a basic unit of:
(a) Gland
(b) Nervous system
(c) Brain
(d) Spinal Cord
(e)All these
Answer:
(b) Nervous system

Question 53.
A neuron is also called a:
(a) Sweat Gland
(b) Duct Gland
(c) A ductless gland
(d) Nerve cell
(e) None of these
Answer:
(d) Nerve cell

Question 54.
Posterior pituitary:
(a) Raise blood pressure
(b) Regulates metabolism
(c) Shows down the heartbeat
(d) Increases contraction of smooth muscles in the intestine and uterus.
(e)All the above.
Answer:
(e)All the above.

Question 55.
The autonomic nervous system is divided into _________ parts.
(a) Two parts
(b) Three parts
(c) Four parts
(d) Striated muscles.
Answer:
(a) Two parts

Question 56.
The brain fundamentally acts as a whole. This view is supported by:
(a) Principles ofequipotentiality
(b) Principle of Mass action
(c) Both the above
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Principle of Mass action

Question 57.
To study the localization of brain functions the following method is used.
(a) Anatomical method
(b) Method of expiration
(c) Action potential method
(d) Method of stimulation
(e) All the above.
Answer:
(e) All the above.

Question 58.
Electrical stimulation of which of the following organs can awaken a sleeping animal?
(a) Thalamus
(b) Hypothalamus
(c) Reticular formation
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Reticular formation

Question 59.
Reflex actions are :
(a) Voluntary
(b) Involuntary
(c) Independent of the person’s will
(d) Controlled by the person
(e) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Involuntary

Question 60.
The size of the reticular activating system is just like ___________.
(a) Small finger of man
(b) Middle fmger of man
(c)Forefinger of man
(d)Thumbofman
Answer:
(a) Small finger of a man

Question 61.
Which of the following is an aid to be the central switchboard of the brain:
(a) Thalamus
(b) Hypothalamus
(c) Cerebrum
(d) Midbrain
(e) None of these
Answer:
(b) Hypothalamus

Question 62.
The occipetal lobe is a part of the:
(a) The central nervous system
(b) The autonomic nervous system
(c) The endocrine system
(d) The cardiac vascular system.
Answer:
(a) The central nervous system

Question 63.
Reflex actions are controlled by __________.
(a) brain
(b) C.N.S.
(c) A.N.S.
(d) Spinal Cord
Answer:
(d) Spinal Cord

Question 64.
The interior part of the mid-brain consisting of grey masters and interconnected with groups of actions is called ___________.
(a) Cerebral cortex
(b) Medulla
(c) Reticular formation
(d) Medulla oblongata
(e) None of these
Answer:
(c) Reticular formation

Question 65.
Which region of the nerve cell is particularly sensitive to stimulation from a receptor of another nerve cell?
(a) Dendrite zone
(b) Axon
(c) Myclin shealth
(d) Nucleus
Answer:
(b) Axon

Question 66.
In the cortex, a concentration of __________ is found.
(a) Axon
(b) Cell bodies
(c) Nerve cells
(d) Dendrites
Answer:
(a) Axon

Question 67.
The reticular formation of the midbrain helps in the control of ___________.
(a) Eating behavior
(b) Eliminating behavior
(c) Well-coordinated movements
(d) Amusai level
Answer:
(d) Amusai level

Question 68.
Most of the vital functions of life are governed by the___________.
(a) Sympathetic system
(b) Para sympathetic system
(c) Spinal cord
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Para sympathetic system

Question 69.
Certain parts of the lymbic system arc intimately connected with ___________.
(a) Emotional behavior
(b) Reflex action
(c) Learning
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Emotional behavior

Question 70.
Destruction of the septal region of the hypothalamus leads to ____________.
(a) Excessive fear
(b) Excessive anger
(c) Combination of hear and anger
Answer:
(c) Combination of hear and anger

Question 71.
The sympathetic nervous system of man consists of ___________.
(a) 22 sympathetic ganglia
(b) 33 sympathetic ganglia
(c) 51 sympathetic ganglia
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) 22 sympathetic ganglia

Question 72.
The neurons are the ___________ units of the whole nervous system.
(a) Smallest
(b) Biggest
(c) Medium
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Smallest

Question 73.
Which of the following areas of the cortex is concerned with the coordination of activity?
(a) Occipetal lobe
(b) Parietal lobe
(c) Temporal lobe
(d) Frontal lobe
(e) None of these
Answer:
(d) Frontal lobe

Question 74.
The reticular activating system is damaged or injured when a man suffers from:
(a) Paralysis
(b) Diabetes
(c) Heart disease
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Paralysis

Question 75.
The parietal lobe lies in the ___________.
(a) Front of the brain
(b) Back of the brain
(c) Centre of the brain
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Back of the brain

Question 76.
Damage of the temporal lobe leads to:
(a) Blindness
(b) Deafness
(c) Dumbness
(d) Forgetfulness
(e) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Deafness

Question 77.
The parietal lobe is also known as:
(a) Body sensitivity area
(b) Anatomical area
(c) Association area
(d) Premotor area
Answer:
(a) Body sensitivity area

Question 78.
The area for recognition of music is located in the ___________.
(a) Occipetal lobe
(b) Temporal lobe
(c) Parietal lobe
(d) Frontal lobe
Answer:
(b) Temporal lobe

Question 79.
The shape of the occipetal lobe is __________.
(a) Circular
(b) Rectangular
(c) Parallelogram
(d) Triangular
(e) None of these
Answer:
(d) Triangular

Question 80.
The cerebrum contains the major area of ___________.
(a) Intelligence
(b) Cognitive process
(c) Sensational process
(d) All these
Answer:
(d) All these

Question 81.
A portion of the parietal lobe located just behind the fissure of Roland is called _____________.
(a) Somasthic area
(b) Body feeling area
(c) All these
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Somasthic area

True or False Type Questions

Question 1.
Two membranes over the spinal cord. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 2.
The spinal cord controls reflexes and simple acts. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The hypothalamus is the master control center of all the endocrine glands. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Most of the activities of the neonate are reflections. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 5.
The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions are largely thought to completely act in opposite directions. (True / False))
Answer:
True

Question 6.
The brain and the spinal cord together control all bodily activity through the peripheral nervous system. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 7.
An axon is a thin cylinder of cytoplasm which expands like a branch. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 8.
The junction of two neurons is called the synapse. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 9.
Primitive forms of animal life do not have a spinal cord. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 10.
The flow of tears is an example of a glandular reflex. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 11.
All reflex actions arc voluntarily. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 12.
The cerebellum is the largest part of the hindbrain. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 13.
The medulla connects each side of the cerebellum with the opposite side of the cerebrum. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 14.
The size of the Reticular activating system is just like the small finger of a man. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 15.
The R.A.S. and cerebrum are connected and contacted by receptors and effectors. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 16.
The thalamus is said to be the central switchboard of the brain. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 17.
Electrical stimulation of the somesthetic area of the brain leads to pressure sensation. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 18.
The temporal lobe contains the visual area. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 19.
The longitudinal fissure divides the brain into two halves. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 20.
The effectors are the nerves. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 21.
The parietal area of the brain is connected with coordination activities. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 22.
The cerebellum is connected with balance. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 23.
Lashley is made prominent studies on brain localization. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 24.
The nucleus of each cell in the human body contains 23 pairs of chromosomes. (True / False)
Answer: True

Question 25.
Electrical stimulation of the hypothalamus produces compulsive drinking. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 26.
Gonads are otherwise known as sex glands. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 27.
The cerebrum is also called the new brain. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 28.
The midbrain has important communicative and integrative functions. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 29.
The nerve center in the hypothalamus controls the sympathetic and parasympathetic activities of the atomic nervous system. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 30.
When the cortex is removed or damaged automatic reactions are very often exaggerated. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 31.
If a region in the posterior hypothalamus is damaged in a person he sleeps and sleeps or remains in a coma stage.(True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 32.
The right hemisphere is connected with the right side of the body and the left hemisphere with the left side of the body. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 33.
The parietal lobe lies near the central fissure in the back half of the brain. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 34.
If the parietal lobe is damaged a person cannot discriminate between a piece of silk cloth and sandpaper. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 35.
That branch of psychology that studies the physiology of human beings is called physiological psychology. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 36.
The parietal lobe is the seat of the association area. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 37.
The peripheral nervous system includes all the cell bodies and the nerve fibers outside the brain and spinal cord. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 38.
The sympathetic system helps the organism to meet the emergency situation more effectively. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 39.
The overall function of the parasympathetic system is to conserve bodily resources and help build-up up the body. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 40.
The nerve centers in the hypothalamus control the sympathetic and parasympathetic activities of the Autonomie nervous system. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 41.
Perception is limited to our experience. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 42.
Figure and ground perception is reversible. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 43.
Precepts and concepts are the same. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 44.
A percept is a specific instance of a concept. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 45.
There cannot be any perception without a sensation. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 46.
There cannot be perception without a sensation. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 47.
There can be a sensation without some perception. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 48.
Double images have a confusing effect on distance perception. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 49.
Hallucination is the wrong perception while illusion is a false perception. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 50.
Illusion is the wrong perception while hallucination is a false perception. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 51.
We perceive things as they are and not as we are. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 52.
We perceive them as things that exist. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 53.
Hallucination is a universal phenomenon. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 54.
Illusions are universally found in everybody. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 55.
The law of good figures states that there is a tendency to organize things to make a balanced or symmetrical figure that includes all the parts. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 56.
Perception is defined as a preperceptive attitude. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 57.
Perception contributes meaning and awareness to a particular sensation. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 58.
Perception is basically selective. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 59.
Perception is an interpretation of the sensory world. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 60.
Attention is the first step in the process of perception. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 61.
Attention is a complex process while perception is a simple process. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 62.
The process of perception consists of receptively symbolic and affective processes. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 63.
Perception consists of sensations and images. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 64.
The perception of adults is more subject to errors than the perception of children. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 65.
The study of Bruner and Mc Gianes indicates the importance of social values on perception. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 66.
The perception was first studied from the physiological point by Wundt and Titchener. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 67.
Gestalt psychologists showed interest in the whole/part approach of perception. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 68.
The Gestalt opined that isomorphism makes one perceive things constantly as a whole with meaning. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 69.
This Wunditian school of psychology held that the process of perception is organized. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 70.
The process of perceptual organization can be best experienced by the figure-ground phenomenon. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 71.
The greater the ambiguity of the stimulus field the lower the chance for the organization. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 72.
Gestalt’s view is that each and every perception is spontaneously organized into a figure-ground relationship. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 73.
In the opinion of the structural school of psychology, the most primitive perception is only figured and ground perception. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 74.
Structural and functional factors determine perceptual organization. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 75.
A pattern will have the advantage of being perceived as a whole if it can be formulated by combing all the elements present in the field. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 76.
Past experience and learning have nothing to do with perception. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 77.
Continuous patterns tend to be grouped together compared to discontinuous patterns. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 78.
In the principle of closure, the stimulus which makes the figure unsymmetrical is perceived as a single pattern. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 79.
The principle of closure is found as an inherent tendency in every individual in the process of perception. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 80.
Phi phenomenon is an illusion of movement. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 81.
The illusion of movement is a universal phenomenon. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 82.
Phi phenomenon is Wertheimer’s brainchild. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 83.
The structural factors of perception lie within the individual. (True / False)
Answer: False

Question 84.
Perception is defined as the interpretation of sensation in the light of present experience. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 85.
“We perceive as we are and not as things are”. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 86.
Motives play a selective role in perception. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 87.
One’s perception is colored by his need, value, and past experience. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 88.
Culture and perception are integrally related. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 89.
Bruner and Goodman viewed that the perceived world shows the organized need within. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 90.
Horizontal, vertical illusions occur due to the stimulus factor. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 91.
In perceptual defense, the perceptual threshold is higher. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 92.
Perception is the wrong interpretation of sensation while illusion is the correct interpretation of sensation. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 93.
Orbison illusion is a geometrical illusion. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 94.
Zollner illusion is named after Zollner (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 95.
Hering illusion is not a geometrical illusion. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 96.
Muller Lyer illusion is an illusion of movement. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 97.
The Moon illusion is an example of a space constancy illusion. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 98.
Hallucinations are only visual. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 99.
There are as many hallucinations as sensations. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 100.
In the illusion, the sensory stimulus is present, while it is completely absent in hallucinations. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Foundations of Education Solutions Unit 2 Fundamentals of Educational Psychology Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class Foundations of Education Unit 2 Fundamentals of Educational Psychology Questions and Answers

Very Short-Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give the meaning of growth.
Answer:
Growth refers to the physical sense. Growth refers to an increase in height, weight, and size. It is measurable as quantitative.

Question 2.
What is development?
Answer:
Development is in a mental sense. It is both physical and mental aspects.

Question 3.
Give three natures of educational psychology.
Answer:
The nature of educational psychology is as follows:

• Educational psychology deals with two facts related to educational situations.
• It helps the process of learning like memorising, perceiving, recalling, reasoning and intelligence.
• It discovers new methods and approaches in the field of education.

Question 4.
Give three objectives of educational psychology.
Answer:
The three objectives are :

• It helps create a positive attitude towards learning.
• It helps to provide correct methods of teaching to the pupils:
• It helps to study the learner and his environment.

Question 5.
Discuss three features of educational psychology
Answer:
Educational psychology is the application of psychology in the field of education. It is the study of human behaviour. It deals with the problems of education.

Question 6.
Give three distinctions of growth and development.
Answer:
Growth refers to change in aspects of the body but development implies the organisation as a whole. Growth does not continue throughout life but development is a continuous process, from womb to tomb. Growth is structural and development is functional.

Question 7.
Give three scopes of educational psychology.
Answer:
To give knowledge of the nature of the child. To present principles and techniques of learning and teaching. To give knowledge of the growth and development of the children.

Question 8.
Explain any three principles of development.
Answer:

• The development follows a pattern, a regular step-by-step process.
• Development in intelligence correlated to physical development.
• All changes in the body are due to growth and development.

Question 9.
Give three factors that determine growth and development.
Answer:
Maturation and learning affect growth and development. Heredity and environment always affect growth and development. Environmental factors like school, family, culture, S.E.S, and nutrition always affect growth and development.

Question 10.
Give three behaviours during the childhood stage.
Answer:

• Friendship: Adolescents choose and make friends.
• Leadership: Leadership is an important aspect of this stage of behaviour.
• A boy-girl relationship is developed.

Short-Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain how education and psychology are related.
Answer:
Education is the modification of behaviour whereas psychology is the science of behaviour. Education helps in the physical, moral, and spiritual development of man and psychology helps in such growth. Education is a lifelong process. By psychology, there is developmental knowledge and experience in different stages of growth. Framing the aims of educational psychology helps. In the case of a child’s internal and external responses and mental analysis, psychology helps

Question 2.
How educational psychology is an applied science?
Answer:
Educational psychology is an applied science in the sense that various psychological principles are being widely applied to the field of education. The principle of individual differences of learning by doing the self-discipline of personality, adjustment, guidance and counselling finds favour in all educational situations. The various laws of learning have made the teaching-learning process in the classroom economical and effective.

Question 3.
Discuss the aims of educational psychology.
Answer:
The aims of educational psychology are as follows:

• To give insight to the teacher about the nature of the child.
• Enlightening the teacher with the growth and development of the child
• Imparting knowledge about principles out of methods of learning.
• Studying the control of emotions and their educational implications.

Question 4.
Forming differences between growth and development?
Answer:
Though the terms growth and development are synonymous still there is a great distinction between the two. Growth refers to change in a particular aspect or aspect of the body whereas development implies the organisation as a whole. Growth does not continue throughout life. It stops at maturation but development is a continuous process which goes from womb to tomb.

Growth is structural and development is functional. Growth is quantitative which is measurable but development is qualitative which can not be measured but is assessed. The changes brought about by growth can be measured directly whereas changes brought about by development are difficult to be measured directly. Both growth and development are affected by heredity and environment.

Question 5.
Give, the nature of educational psychology.
Answer:
The nature of educational psychology is as follows:
Educational psychology deals with the facts related to educational situations. Educational psychology studies the behaviour of the child in teaching learning matters. Educational psychology becomes general rules, laws and techniques in order to achieve educational objectives. Educational psychology discovers the method and approaches in the field of education. Educational psychology develops a scientific outlook.

Question 6.
Give the scope of educational psychology.
Answer:
The following is the scope of educational psychology:
To give knowledge of the nature of the child. To give an understanding of the nature, aims and purposes of education. To present principles and techniques of learning and teaching. To give training in methods of measuring abilities and achievement in school subjects.
to give knowledge of the growth and development of the children.

Question 7.
How is educational psychology helpful to a teacher?
Answer:
Educational psychology is helpful to a teacher and a learner in many ways. To study the most effective ways to teach, specific materials to different children. To place the learner in the best possible learning situation, independent study, large or small group instructions with one or several teachers for a given course. To estimate the optional level wage at which the subject matter should be presented. To determine what courage material is appropriate to the needs, characteristics and goals of each teamer.

Question 8.
Define in short educational psychology?
Answer:
Educational psychology is a combination of two different words- education and psychology. Education is aimed at the modification of behaviour whereas psychology is the science of behaviour. Psychology is an applied science related to the principles and techniques of psychology to solve all the problems in education to achieve educational objectives.

Educational psychology is concerned with the child, the learning situation, the learning process and, the teacher. The teacher with the help of educational psychology becomes conscious of the content of the educational method of teaching, the nature of the child and the frame curriculum. He studies the characteristics of the child as well.

Question 9.
Write at least five contributions to educational psychology.
Answer:
Educational psychology influences the aims of education and studies the developmental characteristics of the child. A survey of learning situations and different types of education centres is opened taking into account to individual differences. Psychology helps the teacher with new methods and techniques of teaching.

The pupils face a large number of problems at different stages of growth and development. The knowledge of psychology aids him so solve those problems. It helps in curriculum construction. It helps in evaluating learning outcomes. The psychological study helps in making provision for learning, the process for exceptional children.

Question 10.
What special behaviours are seen during the childhood stage?
Answer:
In the late childhood stage, some special features are seen in children.
Friendship:
Adolescents choose and make friends with others of some age group.

Social maturity:
As they become socially mature they develop a wide behavioural form of hard living, kindness, sympathy, emotional stability, cooperation and sacrifice.

Leadership:
Leadership is an important aspect of this stage of behaviour.

Boy-girl relationships:
The boy-girl relationship is developed. There are recreational interests.

Question 11.
Give five distinctions of growth and development.
Answer:

• Growth is structural arid development is functional
• Growth is quantitative in nature whereas development is both qualitative and quantitative.
• Growth refers to change in particular aspects of the body arid development implies the organisation of the whole body.
• Growth continues till maturation but development continues till death.
• Growth is additive in nature whereas development is both additive and subtractive.

Question 12.
What are the factors that determine that growth and development?
Answer:
The growth and. development is affected by the factors like maturation and learning and heredity and environment. The factors influence the development of physical, moral, social intellectual and emotional abilities. Heredity is quite inclusive and affects the sex hormones, twin birth, sex and chromosomal anomalies. The environment includes a large variety of actors such as family, school culture, socioeconomic status, nutrition etc.

Question 13.
Give the role of the environment in growth and development.
Answer:
The environment has a powerful effect on the growth and development 6f an organism. The same person may behave differently in a different environment. Moreover, different persons behave differently in the same environment. The environment which influences growth and development can be classified under two heads. Physical environment and social environment in the form of condition takes care of self-expression, play and exercise etc.

Question 14.
Give five objectives of educational psychology.
Answer:
Some specific objectives of educational, psychology art are as follows:
It helps in creating a positive attitude towards learning. It helps to provide correct methods of teaching to the pupils. It helps to study the principles and techniques of learning. It helps to study the learner and his environment. It helps to study individual differences.

Question 15.
Give the nature of educational psychology.
Answer:
The nature of educational psychology arc as follows:
Educational psychology deals with the facts related to educational situations. Educational psychology studies the behaviour of the child in teaching-learning situations. It helps the process of learning like memorizing, perceiving recalling, reasoning and intelligence. It studies the instincts and drives, habits and attitudes, emotions and sentiments and personality. It discovers new methods and approaches in the feels of education.

Long Type Questions With Answers

Question 1.
What is psychology? What is educational psychology? How it is derived? Give its meanings.
Answer:
Psychology i$ a mind’ and mental process. It is also that part of philosophy which studies the mind and mental process as a positive science. In the beginning, it was the part of philosophy known as mental philosophy. The word Psychology is derived from two greek words ‘psyche and Logos’ in which ‘Psyche’ means ‘soul’ and ‘logos’ means ‘to study’ or ‘science of’.

Therefore, Psychology means the science of the soul. Such a definition was put. forward by the Greek philosopher Plato and Aristotle. But such a definition of psychology was discarded, Soul is a metaphysical idea. It can neither be perceived nor imagined. The nature and function of the soul cannot be studied. Scientific methods like observation and experimentation in psychology.

On this ground, the definition that psychology is the science of the soul’ has been rejected. Psychologists like Descartes defined psychology as the ‘science of the mind’. It is also supported by Aristotle, But the word ‘mind’ is as vague and ambiguous as soul. The mind is not a, part of human anatomy. It is nothing but an assembly of ideas.

It stands for the private, personal and internal experience of a man like pleasures and pain, wishes and images, dreams arid desires. No two psychologists agree on the such definition of mind. Moreover, that definition of psychology had been rejected and discarded by other psychologists.

The psychologists like Descartes and Mc. Dougall could not agree with the mind’s definition of psychology. Sir William James put forward another definition of ‘psychology. “Psychology is the science of consciousness”. But the mental life is not only conscious but also there are unconscious and sub-conscious mental levels.

These conscious and subconscious mental levels also affect and influence the behaviour of men and animals in various ways without our knowledge and consciousness. Our conscious mental, functions cannot be fully explained without the help of unconscious and sub-conscious mental processes. Consciousness constitutes only a part of our mental life and it does riot include animal, behaviour.

Therefore, psychology is the science of consciousness is an incomplete definition which it is discarded and rejected by modem psychologists. Again, psychology has also been defined as the ‘science of experience’. This is out and out a subjective definition as it does not take Into consideration outward or external behaviour into account.

Experience is what a man feels internally during any activity. Psychology deals with both inward and outward activities, experiences and behaviours, So the definition is also incomplete. J.B. Watson, the American psychologist, and the founder of the school of behaviourism put forward the latest definition of psychology, “Psychology is the science of behaviour”.

Behaviour means actions and activities. J .B. Watson and other behaviourists wanted to make psychology an objective science and so they rejected experience as the subject matter of psychology. Psychology is a positive science of behaviour with two scientific methods – objective observation and experiment.

Meaning of Educational Psychology:-
Psychology is applied in the field of education with principles and techniques to the development of educational practices and solutions to educational problems like wastage and stagnation, and dropouts. So educational psychology is the science of engineering concerned with the application of psychological principles, the practical problems in the field of education.

Other Definitions of Educational Psychology:
To support the definition of psychology put forward by J.B.Watson, some other modem psychologists advanced some other supporting definitions, as follows:-

• Me Dougall- “Psychology is the positive science of human conduct and behaviour”.
• Woodworth- “Psychology is the science of the activities of the individual in relation to the environment”.
• Skinner – Educational psychology – deals with the behaviour of human beings in educational situations.
• Tro – Educational psychology is the study of the psychological aspect of educational situations.
• Pillsbury – “Psychology is the science of human behaviour”.
• Nunn – “Psychology is the positive science of experience and behaviour”.

Question 2.
What are the aims and objectives of educational psychology? Give its nature.
Answer:
The aims and objectives of educational psychology are as follows- Educational psychologists assist a teacher to give an insight into the nature of the child. To enlighten the teacher with the growth and development of the child, the developmental process. It helps the teacher in finding ways and means of social adjustment for the child.

A study of the psychological method of investigation is used in the field of educational psychology. It helps to control the emotions of the child and their emotional development. It imparts knowledge about the principles and methods of learning. It helps to understand the social problems of the children.

It helps to plan the education of children to their age, ability and aptitude. Imparting knowledge to the teacher about the latest problem in education, the latest development in the field of education, the field of child psychology and various methods of teaching.

Helping the teaching in solving the problems that may arise in the classroom.
Nature of Educational Psychology:

Positive science:
Educational psychology is a positive science but not a normative science like logic and ethics. It always deals with the facts that are happening. It studies the laws of children’s nature as they are or as they operate. It has nothing to do with “ought to be”. It has scientific investigation and application.

It is an applied science:
Educational psychology is an applied science. It constitutes the application of psychological principles and techniques in the development of educational practices and programmes and in the study of educational problems. It acts as an applied science.

As a social science:
Educational psychology acts as a social science because educational findings are applicable to all individuals. As a social science, it studies the behaviour of human beings in all activities. It also studies both the social individual and the interaction.

A practical science:
Educational psychology is practical in nature because the educator makes use of the knowledge of, the educational psychology of each and every walk of teaching and learning situations.

A growing and developing science:
Educational psychology is a growing and developing science new facts and principles also come about from human nature and behaviour a number of researches in the field of education. So educational psychology as a science is ever-growing and developing.

An academic discipline:
Educational psychology is an academic discipline. It is a science which is focussing on human behaviour and its result can be generalised into the principles theories.

Question 3.
Discuss the scope of Educational Psychology.
Answer:
The word ‘Scope’ means the range extent and limitations of the study of what is to be included in the study of a particular subject of the subject matter. The scope of educational psychology is very vast, and wide because it studies human behaviour under various conditions from birth to death.

The scope of educational psychology centres around” the learner- developmental characteristics, individual differences, intelligence, personality and mental health of the teacher and students. It deals with the learning process, motivation in learning, and factors affecting learning and the evaluation of learning performances, in conducting research on educational problems.

Some of the scopes of educational psychology are as follows:
Human behaviour:
It studies human behaviour in all educational situations in the various stages of growth and development, and the characteristics of each stage are included in the study of educational psychology.

Growth and development:
Educational psychology is a psychological process study, the growth and development of a child. How a child passes through the various stages of growth like infancy, childhood and puberty and what the characteristics of each stage can be included in the study of educational psychology.

Learning process:
Educational psychology as-a a psychological process it studies the laws of learning. Learning is a major phenomenon in education. It studies how learning can take place most effectively and economically.

Heredity and Environment:
To what extent do heredity and environment contribute towards the growth of individuals and how knowledge can be made used for bringing about the optimum development of the child, It studies the heredity and environment of the child for better learning achievement.

Intelligence:
The scope of educational psychology also includes the study of the nature of intelligence as well as its measurement. The teacher educator handles educational psychology to measure. The intelligence of the child.

Individual differences:
Every individual child differs from others in physical and mental aspects. The learning experience differs in the same manner. Educational psychology deals with the nature of learning, laws in learning, principles and theories of learning, remembering and forgetting, perceiving, concept formation, thinking and realising process, problem-solving, transfer of learning, and training ways and means of effective earning etc.

The learning situation:
Educational psychology deals with the environmental, factors and learning situations which come between the learner and the teacher. Topics like classroom climate and group dynamics, techniques and aids which facilitate learning situations, techniques and practices, guidance and counselling etc. which help in the smooth functioning of the teaching-learning process come under the scope of educational psychology.

Question 4.
How the knowledge of psychology is helpful to a teacher in the teaching-learning process? Explain. Discuss the application of educational psychology helpful in the teaching-learning process. Explain.
Answer:
Educational psychology is helpful to a teacher to guide the process of education and the knowledge of psychology helps the teacher to realise the objective of effective teaching and educating the pupils properly. The knowledge of psychology helps the teacher in the below following ways.

Understanding the child:
It has been recognised that the teacher can truly teach the child only when he possesses the knowledge of child psychology. The teacher must know how children think, what are their interests of various stages of development and how their energies can be utilised for educational purposes. All modifications in the technique of teaching are really the growing application of the knowledge of psychology in the process of teaching and learning.

To understand the developmental characteristics:
The human child passes through different stages of development as infancy, childhood and adolescence. Each stage has its unique characteristics. A teacher possessing knowledge of these characteristics can profitably apply them to properly educate his pupils.

To understand, individual differences:
No two individuals are alike even though maybe twins. We find individual differences in body structures, achievement, intelligence, personality, interests, and attitudes of children, A teacher must be responsible for determining such individual .differences. The teacher can adopt different methods of instruction, curricular and means of evolution for individual interests.

To develop knowledge of the learning process:
All education depends upon the learning of new responses and the capacity of a human child to learn new responses. Psychology analyses different aspects of the process of learning. It tells us that learning is impossible if the learner does not cooperate in the learning process. The problem of teaching then takes the form of a psychological problem. Incentives like illustrative aids in the classroom and general maxim of the teaching area all are based on sound psychological theory.

To understand the relative importance of heredity and environments :
The heredity and environment of the child determine his growth and development, his personality and his learning process, intelligence, interest and attitude. The body structure is determined by heredity whereas other factors like intelligence, personality interest and attitude are determined by the environment. So, teachers should create environments for the healthy development of their pupils.

Curriculum construction:
For constructing a balanced curriculum educational psychology is helpful to a teacher. The needs of the child, his developmental characteristics, interests, attitudes etc. are some of the essential factors that should be taken into consideration while framing the curriculum.

Planning methods of education:
Psychology is also helpful to a teacher planning methods of education in such a manner – that there is no problem with motivation. Modem methods of teaching like project methods help to achieve educational goals. Separate methods of instruction should be adopted for gifted or bright children, average children and slow learners. The knowledge of educational psychology equips the teacher with all these effective methods of teaching.

Research :
The knowledge of educational psychology helps teachers to develop and try out tools and devices for measuring various variables which affect the child’s behaviour. He can control, direct and predict the behaviour of students on the basis of action research in the classroom.

Question 5.
What do you mean by growth and development? Bring the difference between G and D.
Answer:
Growth and Development: Growth means it is in a physical Sense. When and after the birth of a human baby, we make a number of changes in-bodily parts gradually, which is seen in the increase in height, weight, and body size. Such changes in the structure of the body of the child are known as growth. Structural change is the result of rapid cell divisions in the body.

At different stages of growth, a number of physical changes take place in the child. Development implies changes in bodily functions. As the body grows there is gradual progress in the movements. The child starts to swing his hands and legs. He is able to sit wait and run to and throw many things. The child starts to walk, to think, to express emotions like laughter, anger mid fear.

Thus, all the changes in the functions of different parts of the body and mind are the features of this development. So development is a progressive series of functional changes in a child and such changes lead the child towards maturity. So development is in a mental sense, the mental powers, mental ability. There is the power of concept formation, thinking, reasoning and power judgement.

Difference between growth and development:-
Growth and development seem to be synonym terms but in a strict sense there is a gulf of difference between the two, as follows:

Growth implies quantitative changes in bodily structures. Such changes can be expressed in some quantitative terms like metres (height), and kilograms (weight). On the other hand, development is qualitative in nature. All aspects of development like the development of motor activities: language, thinking, and emotions cannot be expressed in numerical measures.

So growth is structural and quantitative in nature but development is functional and both qualitative and quantitative in nature. Growth refers to changes in particular aspects of the body but development implies the organisation of the body as a whole. Growth continues for a specific period called physical maturation. But development continues throughout life.

For example, after the age of 25, there is no growth but development continues till death. Growth is always additive in nature which means adds something to the structure of the body, So it proceeds in the forward direction only. But development is both additive and subtractive in nature and may add new features and eliminate some old features to improve the quality of body functions.

Question 6.
Explain the general principles of growth and development.
Answer:
Various studies and research have highlighted certain significant principles underlying the process of growth and development.

The development follows a pattern:
If we take any dimension of growth and development we will find a particular pattern of growth. In physical development, in the cephalo-caudal sequence, the development proceeds from the head to the upper parts of the body and grows earlier than the lower parts. At birth, the head is much large compared to the adult head. Similarly, the development of movements is earlier in the upper parts of the body. The child can raise his head first with better control before he can move his chest or hand or leg.

Development proceeds from general to specific:
The child first shows general responses and then he shows specific responses to specific stimuli. For example, the new bom baby moves his whole body. If one time instead of moving one part of it. He moves his whole hand to specify one object instead of using a finger. In the emotional field, he responds through only general responses like crying to denote joy, hunger, pain or fear.

Development is a continuous process:
Development maintains continuity at a slow and regular pace. It does not take place abruptly or by leaps and bounds. All dimensions of development continue to grow gradually until they reach their maximum. For example, a child cannot speak all of a sudden and he develops speech habits through continuous efforts.

Growth is not uniform:
Different aspects of growth develop at different rates. All parts of the body can never grow at the same rate. At birth, the head is larger, about one-fourth of the body in length, But the rate of growth slows down and hands and legs grow at a faster rate. The brain reaches its maximum size at about six. Likewise, memory develops faster than creative imagination.

Most traits are correlated:
Most of the traits of growth and development are correlated which means superior in other respect, he is also found superior in other respect. A child whose intelligence is above average is also so in health size, sociability and special aptitudes. But this is not always true. We find very lean and thin boys with high intelligence but not sociable.

Individual differences in growth and development:
There are Individual differences in growth and development. No two individuals grow and develop in the same way or at the same rate. Some grow taller, some dwarf, and some become adolescents very soon. Some others develop secondary sex characteristics very soon and some get early maturation. So there is the individual difference in physical and mental characteristics.

Development is predictable:
It is impossible to predict in advance what type of development a child will follow because the rate of development of a particular child remains fairly constant. The environmental factors determine the product of maturation. But mental development cannot be predicted with some degree of accuracy.

Development is a product of heredity and environment:
Both hereditary and environment determine the growth and development of a child. Heredity is responsible for physical growth and intellectual development, whereas the environment is responsible for the intellectual, social and temperamental development of the child. Likewise, parental care, nutrition, the climate in the home and school and society are also essential for a child’s sound development. So hereditary and environment both contribute effectively maximum growth of the child.

Question 7.
What is physical growth? Explain the physical characteristics of growth and development.
Answer:
In growth and development remarkable physical and physiological changes take place in boys and girls, Specially in adolescence period, there is rapid physical and physiological changes are seen.

Changes in height and weight:
In the infancy stage, there is rapid physical growth. The development of the body and nervous system is very fast. Almost all adolescent boys and girls show remarkable growth in height and weight. There is a rapid growth in girls from 10 to 14 years and in boys from 12 to 16 years. The mature height is attained from 13 to 20 years. Boys are in average taller than girls up to 11 years. From 12 to 15 years girls grow faster than boys. Boys are heavier than girls in all ages.

Changes in body proportion:
Human individuals differ not only in height and weight but also in body proportion as they grow. The different parts of the body mature more in one age while others attain maturity at earlier or later ages.

Changes in internal organs:
During the growth of child important changes occur in the internal organs such as the brain, muscles, skeleton and glands. The brain gradually matures with the nervous system. The skeleton becomes .longer day by day and the joints of the bone become also stronger. During the physical. growth there are glandular changes and the sex glands. The thyroid, Hymus, and pituitary also develop ill at maximum rates. The changes, in glands, affect the behaviour of adolescents, boys and girls and they also develop masculine and feminine qualities.

Change in voice:
There is a change in the voice of the boys and girls. During the stage of adolescence, the voice becomes course day by day and the voice of the adolescent girls becomes sweeter day by day.

Changes in physical activity strength:
In the childhood stage, the child remains engaged in play. He becomes physically strong. Adolescent boys and girls become physically active and they develop the ability, skill, strength and speed in doing any work or activity. Jn physical activity girls become more mature than boys. Boys are more muscular in strength. Then the girls always like adventure activities.

Growth of secondary sex qualities:
During adolescence, secondary sex characteristics are seen in both boys and girls. Hairs appear in different parts of the body and boys develop beards on their faces and menstruation starts in girls.

Development of sex:
During the stage of adolescence, both boys and girls are sexually mature. The genital organs in boys and the sex organs in girls increase. Both boys and girls develop an interest in the opposite sex and develop an interest in mutual intercourse or heterosexuality. For sex satisfaction, they practise masturbation, and both adolescent boys and girls achieve production capacity.

Question 8.
What is social development? What are the social characteristics seen in adolescents? Explain.
Answer:
Man is a social animal. As the child grows and psychologically matured he develops gradually some of the social behaviours. Social development means the attainment of the maturity of social relationships and helps the individual for adjustment to his environment.

As the child grows to adolescence he learns the social ways of the society like customs, traditions, miners and languages, and ways of living which change his tastes, interests, and attitudes. He may develop interaction from person to person, person to group and group to group.

The social characteristics seen among adolescent boys and girls are given below:
Friendship:
Adolescents tend to choose friends of their own age and temperament They develop friendships based on common interests, needs and goals.

Social consciousness:
Adolescent boys and girls become socially conscious and they develop social responsibilities duties, rights and responsibilities, and obligations. In attending social programmes, they develop group loyalties. Social service attitudes are developed with them.

Social maturity:
Adolescent boys and girls attain social maturity and they very soon develop the ability to adapt to changing situations. They become social and develop social potential ties like kindness, sympathy, tolerance, cooperation, dependability etc. They also learn sacrifice and wise judgement.

Leadership:
Leadership is an important aspect of social development in adolescence. The adolescent boys and girls participate in group activities and develop leadership qualities. They develop the qualities like patience, endurance, quality of domination, sincerity, hard-working, and responsibility. In schools and colleges, adolescents show their leadership in academic performances, games and sports, participating in college union elections, and organising debates, competitions, excursions and social service programmes.

Development of social, cultural, recreational, and vocational interests:
Social interests:
The adolescents develop an interest in attending different fairs, social functions, festivals etc. visiting religious places, running discussions on social problems and developing social awareness and interests.

Recreational interests:
The adolescents develop an interest in reading, cultural activities, attending movies, group games, and radio listening, and they also organise different hobbies like gardening, writing, photography, collection of stamps etc. which develop a recreational interest in them.

Development of social attitudes:
Social interaction determines the degree of adjustment of adolescents. Such social interaction is possible by observing different customs, organising cultural and religious ceremonies and marriage functions etc.

Question 9.
What is emotional growth? What are the emotional characteristics seen in adolescence? Explain.
Answer:
Emotion is a feeling, a state of mind, a state of being moved or stored up. So emotion involves feelings, impulses and physiological reactions. The feelings of emotions are anger, disgust, pleasure and fear. Emotions are accompanied by physiological changes including heart and stomach problems, heartbeat, breathing and blood pressure which affect hunger, rest, sleep etc.

Such emotions are reflected with over behaviour like throwing, smiling, staring at etc. The adolescence period is marked by heightened emotions like nailbiting, tension, conflicts, quarrels with parents and teachers, and siblings with classmates. Other emotions like absent-mindedness, shyness and negativism are seen.

Emotional characteristics during adolescence:
Complexity:
As the child grows from childhood to adolescence his emotions become complex. Various experiences come from the environment and to the complexity of emotional development. The adolescent hides his emotions and it is difficult to understand.

Emotional feelings widened:
At adolescence, adolescents start making friends, forming groups with other taking leadership etc. and he is also emotionally attached to the group or person.

Development of tolerance:
Adolescents develop the tendency to bear and tolerate tensions, troubles, frustrations and failures in different social situations. They give emphasis to self-control and redirect their emotions in acceptable directions.

Capacity to share emotions:
The adolescents develop the ability to share with others and to love their neighbours, mates, fellow beings, and members of groups. Adolescents also derive pleasure from the achievement of their friends.

Love for freedom:
Adolescents develop a kind of inner freedom to feel, express act and behave independently which makes them rebellious and stubborn.

Tolerance of aloneness:
Adolescents at times prefer to stay alone in their homes and get pleasure from daydreaming and fantastic imagination by sitting alone for a long time.

Common emotions-during adolescence:
Love and affection :
During the period of childhood, love comes around as the object of interest but in adolescence, love is associated with relatives, peers and the opposite sex. During adolescence, love takes a sexual colour and adolescent boys and girls engage in conversations about sex and its problems.

Joy, pleasure and delight:
In adolescence period, adolescents feel joy when he is well adjusted and they also he get pleasure and delight from their achievements. He develops a feeling of superiority. He gets delighted when he gets successful in competitions, sports, debates and other such activities.

Worries and anxieties:
Worry is an imaginary fear which is caused by frequent thinking about a situation. Adolescents get worried about school work, examinations and tests, unreasonable homework, failure in competitions, and sex problems. Some other worries include lack of adjustment with parents, illness of parents and poverty of parents family problems and presence of stepmother.

Fear:
Fear is formed by the child from the environment which includes fear of animals and snakes, fear of electric appliances, huge machines, deep seas and rivers, high places, strange noise and darkness etc.

Anger:
Anger is the violent emotion expressed by adolescents due to the reasons like unfair treatment by teachers and parents, satirical remarks, encroachment of human rights, tasks beyond ability etc. Sometimes anger is seen in the failure of responsibility.

Question 10.
What is intellectual development? Give its characteristics.
Answer:
Intellectual development refers to cognitive, mental, memory, reasoning, understanding, intelligence, generalisation, interpretation, language ability, conceptual ability etc. These abilities are interrelated. Intellectual development is the mental development and overall development of all those above abilities.

Characteristics of intellectual development:
Development of time senses:
As the child grows he develops the ability to differentiate, between events that are now occurring and those which have occurred in the days gone by. He is in a position to locate events in the space where they are performed. As he advances in image his ability to react in terms of recollection from the past and anticipation of the future increases.

Increase in the power of attention:
The child has the ability to utilise past experiences but with the passage of time, he acquires an increasing ability to plan out remote goals and actions. For instance, in order to advise the remote goal through the examination a child may make or prepare time table plan to study.

Increasing ability to use symbols and signs:
With the increased ability to use signs and symbols, for example, the hungry child who would stop crying only when he was actually fed a later stage ceasing crying at the sight of a milk bottle a symbol for being fed.

Increase in the development of morality:
As a child advances in age, he learns to obey certain moral norms and starts thinking in terms of good and bad. In that way, the foundations of moral character are laid in the child.

Increase in curious questions:
As a child’s age increases the questions put by him to satisfy his curiosity are more definite as compared to those put by him prior to what is it? Who has done it? Why is it so?

Increase in creative impulses:
As the child grows in age he exhibits creative impulse in another world he engages himself in making on collecting things. He creates interest and social pleasure in solving puzzle problems. In this way, he develops the power of abstract thinking.

Increasing sensory development:
Sensory development occurs during the first month of the child. It learns to make effective use of the sense and experiences. Many topics of sensations such as hardness, pain, pleasure, and the sensation of smell and sound. As it advances in age it comes to have developed sensory equipment more accurately and sharpened the power of perception, the ability to compare various sensations. Logical thinking in place of vivid memory and the ability to generalise on the basis of experience.

Increase in language development:
The crying of a child at birth is an expression of the emotion of pain and pleasure. At the age of six months, its crying stands for its recognition of the new situation. By the time he is one year of age, he utters a few words- Aa, Ba, Maa, Daa etc. and at the age of two to three years it can repeat very short sentences spoken by elders.

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Solutions Unit 2 Perceptual Process Long Answer Questions Part 1.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class Psychology Unit 2 Perceptual Process Long Answer Questions Part-1

Long Questions With Answers

Question 1.
What are perception and its operational benefits? Discuss the process of perception. Meaning and Operational Definition.
Answer:
While interacting with the environment, the organism is impinged by a number of stimuli, lie receives these stimuli through its sense organs. This is called sensation. The sensation is the raw material of experience. When meaning is added to the sensation, with the help of past experience and learning it becomes perception.

In other words, perception provides meaning and awareness to a particular sensation. The sensation is mere acquaintance with the stimulus. But perception contributes a clear knowledge about the stimulus. So perception has been included under the cognitive (knowing) aspect of the mind. Perception has become the meeting ground of experimental, clinical, and social psychology.

Starting from Wundt to Gestalt perception has been a topic of great interest. Watson, Wundt, Titchener, and Gestalts, all gave due importance to the process of perception. Gestalt School dominated the study of perception for the next two decades. Their research centered around the organization of perception.

As already pointed out, perception contributes meaning and awareness to a particular sensation. For instance, you see a big bird-like object flying in the sky. This is the sensation when you attend to it and say that it is an airplane, it becomes perception. Perception is, therefore, defined as the awareness of sensory stimulation.

But this is an incomplete definition. Along with awareness, the most important thing in perception is adding knowledge and meaning to this awareness, i.e., interpreting it on the basis of past experience. Perception is, therefore, defined as the interpretation of sensation in the light of past experience.

When a person faces a stimulus, he gets a sensation. It may be a sensation of vision, smell, or sound. When he tries to go ahead and add knowledge to this sensation with the help of experience and learning, it becomes perception. Titchener has defined perception as a complex of sensory and imaginal elements.

By this, he implied that perception is always built up of complex experiences out of sense impressions, characteristics, and qualities supplied by mental activities. According to Hebb, it is a process of information, extraction, and preparation for response. This definition of Hebb emphasizes the selective nature of perception. We do not perceive each and every stimulus. We perceive the one which we select to perceive.

Processes involved in Perception:

The mechanism through which the organism converts a sense of impression to perception by adding knowledge and meaning to it is called the process of perception. Thus, the sensation is the first step in the process of perception. Perception, in fact, starts with sensation. Though without sensation there cannot be any perception, all sensation may not lead to perception, because perception is a selective process.

According to Munn (1954), “The term perception is customarily used to refer to relatively complex receptors or neural processes which underlie our awareness of ourselves and our world. This awareness is referred to as perception. “Perception is, therefore, a very complex process.”

As mentioned earlier at a given moment We get a number of sense impressions from the environment around us. But it is neither possible nor necessary to perceive everything at a time. So our perception at a given moment is based on selection. Selection is guided by set, need, or by objective determinants of the stimulus.

Needed objects are perceived first. A large number of studies on perceptual selectivity lead to the conclusion that there are certain objects in the environment that conform to the current needs, values, attitudes, and past experiences of the perceiver and hence are selected for perception.

Titchener has explained perception as a selective act in terms of attention as attention is a preperceptive attitude. The selective manner in which different part systems are analyzed in perception is largely determined by the unique interaction between the individual and his cultural media, which he has passed through and of which he is a part at the moment.
After selection one starts perceiving.
This process of perception involves:

• Receptor Process
• Symbolic Process
• Affective Process

In each act of perceiving, these three processes are involved.
Receptor Process:
Perception not only depends upon the mental set but also upon the forms of stimulation, the receptor functions, and the neural functions. Simultaneously different receptor processes like visual, auditory, olfactory, gustatory, kinesthetic, and neural are activated. At a particular time perception is limited only to a particular receptor process.

For instance, at the same time the telephone rings, and the calling bell rings. Here you receive both sounds through your auditory receptors. But you cannot attend to both simultaneously. So you decide to attend to the tclephni1; call first and then the calling bell.

Symbolic Process:
Sensory stimulations arouse certain neural activities which have their trace in the nervous system. These are popularly known as neural traces. These traces act as symbols or substitutes for the original stimulus or experience. There are called images. When the teacher, for instance, asks the student in the class to draw a picture of his father in his mind’s eye, it becomes symbolic.

These symbolic images help us while perceiving something. This symbolic process is activated by any experience or image associated with the father. It is called symbolic because it represents some experiences or images, as it stands for some experiences or images which is a necessary part of the perceptual process. While sensations depend upon the present, images are derived from past experiences.

For any perception both present sensation and past experience in the form of images are necessary. Perception, therefore, does not consists only of sensation or only of images. It is made up of sensations, ideas, and images. All these come simultaneously at the same moment to make perception complete. Particularly, for adding meaning and knowledge to their interpretation of a sensory experience, the symbolic process helps.

Affective Process:
When we are perceiving an object, with receptor and symbolic process, the affective process is also involved to complete perception. In fact, an effective process forms an integral part of the process of perception. When one is interpreting a fruit, say a mango, it may appear to him pleasant or unpleasant or it may bring an indifferent neutral feeling in him.

This pleasantness or unpleasantness for the percept (the object which we perceive) may arise due to past experience or due to the very nature of the percept. Say, you like the mango as it is sweet. So its presence brings a pleasant sensation in you. The fragrance of a flower always gives a pleasant sensation. The bitterness of quinine always creates an unpleasantness.

Such ideas about the percept are not due to past experience only, but because of the very nature of the object. But in most perceptions, the affective feeling is determined by past experience. You don’t like the sight of a particular person or females on the whole. You cannot stand the sight of jasmine because it reminds you of a very painful memory.

Individual differences in the perception of the same object are mostly guided by this affective process, perception is an active process as pointed out by Ruch (1970), “perception is a process whereby sensory cues and relevant past experience are organized to give us the most structure, meaningful picture possible under the circumstances.”

Question 2.
What is attention and what types of attention?
Answer:
Attention is also described as selective and fluctuating. At a particular moment, so many stimuli around us attract outs attention and draw our awareness. But we Only attend to that stimulus that suits our purpose at the moment. So, we select only the stimulus at a time and reject the rest. When you enter the drawing room of your friend, the beautiful personal carpet immediately draws your attention because of its fantastic color combinations. You at this moment, only select to attend this and it remains in the center of your consciousness for some time.
Types of Attention
Attention has been classified in 3 groups:

• Voluntary Attention
• Involuntary Attention
• Habitual Attention

Voluntary Attention:
Voluntary attention also called effortful attention. When attention requires special effort on the part of the attendee to attend it, it is called voluntary attention. In this case, we attend an object that we really want to attend. At the time of examination, a student has to attend to a particular topic if he comes to know that questions have been set from this topic.

Involuntary Attention:
When without one’s own effort one attends to a stimulus it is called effortless or involuntary attention. Munn (1954) remarks that “when stimuli or situations force themselves upon us as it were, whether or not we are set for their perception, attending is said to be involuntary.” In voluntary attention, stimulus draws our attention because we can not help attending.

In voluntary attention usually occurs because of the quality of the stimulus itself, either loud sound, eye-catching color, or the huge size of the stimulus object. As opposed to voluntary attention involuntary attention is incidental. There is more fluctuation and greater distraction in involuntary attention since the desire to attend is very less in this type of attention.

Habitual Attention:
We attend to certain objects in our environment because we have been attending to these stimuli from the very beginning. So just out of habit and past experience, we attend to it not by pressure nor out of the will, rather because of continuous observation of these stimuli we become habituated to attending them.

The gardener attends to the plants, the housewife attends to the kitchen, the mother attends to the baby and the student attends to his study, because of habit. In a similar way, a smoker attends a cigarette shop, and a painter’s attention is drawn immediately to beautiful paintings. The doctor’s husband attends to the telephone call and the mother attends to the baby’s crying.

In habitual attention, the person is permanently set for the reception of certain stimuli. Let us take the example of a husband chess player, who purchased a book on ‘Chess’, a wife who was interested in cooking and purchased a book on Chinese recipes, and finally, a daughter who is a cricket lover, who purchased a book on cricket. Thus, in habitual attention, internal conditions and bit play a major role.

In habitual attention, the attitude of alertness develops which determines one’s attention to a particular stimulus. In the words of Munn, “Most of our acts of attending are continuing rather than abruptly assumed sets and they are sets of which we are frequently unaware. These continuing sets stem from our motives. They are related to drives, interests, attitudes, prejudices, and aspirations”.

Habitual attention may develop out of voluntary attention. In the beginning, you may start reading, cooking, or gardening because of necessity, out of your own will. But once you are habituated to doing it, it becomes a part of your life and you cannot give up reading daily to it. A student who was habituated to reading daily for four hours used to read daily even after he passed his MBBS Examination.

Once when this author asked him “Why are you studying daily, going to the library ? You have already passed. Take some rest”. The boy remarked, “I can’t sleep peacefully unless 1 read daily and go to the library. It has almost become a habit with me.” The present author who has cooked for the family for the last thirty-five years, now it has almost become a habit with her to attend to cooking.

Question 3.
What are the various determinants of attention? Explain objective determinants in detail.
Determinants of Attention
Answer:
The complexity of the environment makes the individual face so many stimuli simultaneously at a given moment. But as it is impossible to attend to all at a time, he selects one of them. What are the conditions for selecting a particular stimulus for attention? What are the factors that make stimulus attract our attention? Why do we select one and reject the others? All these questions deal with the determinants of attention. Many factors influence the direction and selection of our attention. They determine our attention.

The determinants of attention may be classified under two broad heads:

• The objective or external determinants.
• The subjective or internal determinants.

A large number of researches in consumer psychology, in the area of advertisement and selling, have uncovered several external and internal determinants.

Objective Determinants:
Those factors or determinants which lie in the stimulus or object of attention are called the external or objective determinants. They are the qualities and characteristics present in the object of attention. They are:

• Intensity
• Size
• Duration
• Novelty
• Repetition
• Change
• Systematic form
• Movement
• Location
• Colour
• Contrast
• Prepotency

More often than not, several of these factors operate together in determining our attention at a given moment.
Intensity:
The more intense the stimulus, the more likely it is to be attended. It is also called the potency of the stimulus. The sound coming from the loudspeakers, deep and bold colors, bright, gorgeous shades, strong, fragrance, severe pain, all these draw attention immediately. On the other hand, a soft whisper, low sounds, plate color, and fade shades, and dim light do not catch our immediate attention, keeping other words constant.

The brilliantly lit signs in front of the traffic stand or cinema hall attract our attention to those than the low power lights. Thunder draws our attention at once. According to Boaz (1984) here the selection depends upon the very nature of our sense receptors and on the greater amount of energy stimulated.

Size or Extensity:
The size of a stimulus is of great importance in determining the direction of our attention. Big things always draw one’s attention more than smaller ones, other things being equal. A big poster, a big elephant, a big mouse, a full-page advertisement, and big letters draw instant attention in comparison to their smaller counterparts.

For successful advertisements very big posters and big lights are kept in front of shops. During elections in India, the full-page advertisement of hand, the election symbol of Congress (I), drew the immediate attention of a large number of people. Thus, the greater size of the stimulus has an advantage over smaller sizes. However, size is only one among the diverse factors determining one’s attention.

Duration:
Other things being equal, objects exposed for a longer period of duration have greater attention-catching value than those shown for a shorter period. When a card containing a few digits is exposed before us for 1 minute it is better attended than when it is exposed for only 1/10 part of the second. Similarly, a sound or a visual exposed for a moment obviously escapes our notice while the one which persists catches and holds our attention.

But the stimulus presented for a continuous duration is less likely to hold one’s attention because of fluctuations than the stimulus which is presented at intervals and for a moderate duration. For example, if the noise goes on without break it might escape our attention. The duration of exposure hence should be up to a limit.

Novelty:
Most of us attend to anything that is novel. Things to which we are unaccustomed, which are new to us, whether sound, smell or taste, are instantly noticed by us. That is why, anything strange or unusual has always a unique charm for the attending person than the things which are conventional, traditional, ordinary, and usual.

Say, for instance, a newly designed unusual dress used by a girl may draw our immediate attention to her more than when she is dressed in a traditional saree or salwar kameez. Similarly, strange animals, ultramodern buildings, unusual colors, strangely decorated drawing rooms, and novel flower arrangements draw our attention more than conventional ones. Novelty in the technique of advertisement on T. V., Radio draws a lot of attention.

Repetition:
According to Ruch (1970), “A work stimulus frequently repeated may be as effective as a strong one presented once.” Thus, a stimulus may not be very intense or colorful, it may not be very big in size, and the sound may not be very loud, but if it is repeated over and over again it may eventually draw our notice.

Repetition brings the object to the center of consciousness and so we are bound to attend it. When you are studying and somebody gives knocks on the door, you overlook it. But if the knock is made repeatedly over and over again, you are definitely drawn to it. But there is a limit to the effectiveness of repetition.

If it goes beyond the limit, it ceases to draw one’s attention just like diminishing returns. If repetition is overdone it can also lead to monotony and unpleasantness. For instance, the continuous and repeated ticking sound of the timepiece kept on the study table escapes our attention though it is there in the fringe of our consciousness. This is because we are so adopted or accustomed to it.

Question 4.
What do you understand by errors in perception? Explain some geometrical and fan’s Zollner, height width, Ponzo, and Jastrow illusion.
Answer:
Errors in perception Always our sense organs do not provide correct information. So we can not always rely upon these sense organs. Very often what we see and hear may be wrong and misleading. We perceive certain things which are not actually present there and sometimes we perceive one thing for another.

On the whole, our perception of the stimulus world may not be always accurate. The sensory information may be incorrectly interpreted on certain occasions. These are called errors in perception. Mainly two types of errors are there – illusion and hallucination.

Illusion:
Illusions are the wrong perception while perception is the correct interpretation of sensation, illusion is the wrong or mistaken interpretation of a sensory experience. In both perception and illusion existence that is illusion always has an apparent external stimulus. A person suffering from a severe cold may not get the real fragrance of flowers or the smell of fish. Thus the errors in perception seem to be a function of diverse factors.

Muller Lyer- Illusion:
It is also known as a geometrical illusion. An observation of the diagram given below would lead to every normal person saying that the horizontal line ‘A’ looks smaller than line ‘B’.

But actually both the lines are of the same length. Muller and Lyer, two psychologists, observed this kind of error in perception for the first time and hence called it Muller Lyer Illusion. In this visual illusion, both lines are of equal length. At the end of line ‘A’ two very short lines are joined just like an arrow and at the end of line ‘B’ two very short lines of the same size as line ‘A’ are joined like a feather.

These two are known as arrow-headed and feather-headed lines. Though both lines are of similar length the feather-headed line appears invariably longer than the arrow-headed line. It is a universal illusion as this error in perception takes place in every normal person due to the stimulus factor.

Even children old enough to express their nature of experience and some animals react in the same way as normal adults. Perception of the comer of buildings, and rooms is due to this type of geometrical illusion. Hering illusion, Zollner illusion, and Orbison illusion are some of the examples of geometrical and optical illusions universally found.

Hering Illusion:
It is named after Hering (1861). In the following figure, the two horizontal lines are parallel. The distance between 1 and 2 is the same, all the way across the figure. But they appear every one as unparallel. This is also called Fan’s illusion.

Zollner Illusion:
It is named after Zollner (1860). All these lines are drawn in a parallel way. But they are not perceived as parallel.

Height Width Illusion:
A tall hat is put in a short vase. The height and width of the hats are equal. But one looks taller than the other.

Ponzo Illusion:
It is also a geometrical illusion. Circles 1 and 2 are really of the same size. But circle 2 looks bigger than 1.

Jastrow Illusion:
The two crescents 1 and 2 are of the same size but 1 appears to be bigger than 2.

Question 5.
Define perceptual constancy. Perceptual Constancy
Answer:
The tendency of the percept to remain the same from moment to moment and from time to time refers to the constancy of perception. Even when we perceive an object under different conditions, size shape, and height, the perception of the stimulus does not change. It remains the same. Thus, in spite of the constant changes in the stimulus field, the stimulus situations that are familiar are easily recognized for what they are. Perceptual constancy includes the constancy of size, shape, distance, color brightness, etc.

Size Constancy:
The size of a stimulus varies with the change in distance in distance between the percept and the perceiver. A tree that is usually perceived at a distance of 5 feet will look very small when perceived from a distance of 30 feet. This is because the size of the retinal image becomes smaller and smaller as the distance of the object from the eye becomes larger and larger.

But in spite of this significant difference in the sense of impression, we perceive the tree to be of its usual size. Similarly, from whatever angle you perceive a square table, you will perceive it in its actual size. Martin did an experiment on size constancy. A series of 13 blocks were lined up from the observer varying in size from 30 mm to 90 mm.

The standard blocks, one at a time, were placed at varying distances from the observer, but always nearer to him than the comparison series. The technique again was to have the observer select the blocks that appeared equal in apparent size to the standard. Considerable constancy was indicated by the observer in the perception of the size of the blocks.

Colour Constancy:
When a black paper is brought from the dark comer of a room into direct sunlight by a window, the intensity of the sunlight being reflected from its surface is increased. The paper is still perceived as black, and the perception of the color of the paper does not change though the conditions against which it, is observed are radically changed.

When a blue paper is placed in yellow illumination of the optimum intensity and observed through a reduction screen it appears neutral grey. But when observed without the screen it appears as blue because in yellow constancy illumination is perceived as blue. Cramer has shown that well-known objects projected into an obviously colored screen, retain their object colors.

Shape Constancy:
We perceive a circle as a circle or a triangle as a triangle though it appears to be of different sizes from different angles. A circle may appear of an oval size from a particular angle, but we perceive it as a circle though referral images vary from angle to angle and position to position.

Brightness Constancy:
Under brightness constancy, a known object is always perceived as having the same color even if the conditions of illumination are quite different. Always the sense impression of the refer a very with the conditions of illumination that is dim, bright, average, etc.

Question 6.
Define illusions and illusions caused by stimulus factors and illusions of movement and moon illusion.
Answer:
Illusions- are wrong perceptions while perception is the correct interpretation of sensation, illusion is the wrong or mistaken interpretation of a sensory experience. In both perception and illusion, the sensory experience of a stimulus has real existence that is illusion always has an apparent external stimulus. In perception, the sensory conventional example of an illusion is taking a “coil or roope or rope for a snake in darkness”.

Illusions are misperceptions resulting from misinterpretation of information received by our sensory organs, illusions are experienced by all normal human beings, third, and animals. They are experienced through the stimulation of any of our senses. It is true that our perceptual process involves the organic and functional factors for the interpretation of a particular sensory experience.

Perceptual Process:
According to Morgon and King, “An illusion is not a trick or a misperception. It is a perception that does not agree with other more trustworthy perceptions. Illusions demonstrate that what we experience depends upon processes which go far beyond the sensory input.” Thus, a well-defined and very similar stimulus may lead to an illusion undo-certain circumstances, but not always.

As already discussed, our perceptual process involves the organic and functional factors for the interpretation of a particular sensory experience. In other words, we interpret a stimulus in the light of our past experience, organic needs, values, attitudes, motives, etc. If this interpretation is incorrect, we perceive the stimulus wrongly and commit mistakes in our perception.

Errors in perception are not very unusual and every individual is likely to commit errors in his perception in his day-to-day life. These errors mainly depend upon the physical and psychological conditions and circumstances under which the stimulus is interpreted. Illusions may be categorized under different heads on the basis of their causes.

Illusions due to organic and functional factors also occur due to defects in the sense organ of the perceiver and limitations in the receptors. Award-hearing persons or partially blind or colorblind persons may be liable to many illusions. Mental deficiency and emotional states also affect the accuracy of perception. Perception becomes distorted and is misinterpreted under highly disturbed and emotional states.

Illusion caused by Stimulus Factor:
Horizontal, vertical illusions occur due to the stimulus factor. Suppose we take two straight lines of 3 cm each. The first line we draw horizontally exactly from its middle point (1.5 cm):

We draw another vertical line of 3 cm (the second line). Now observe both lines, the vertical line is observed longer than the horizontal line. This type of illusion is caused due to stimulus factors. Certain illusions also occur due to personal or functional factors like need, value, past experience such as observing the colored balloons as fruits.

Take another case. You have gone to the station to receive a friend. You call somebody else your friend from his back. This is an illusion due to expectations or mental set. A color-blind person cannot perceive the real color of a stimulus or a hard-hearing person may consider the sound coming from a truck as the sound coming from a scooter.

The illusion of Movement:
When an observer perceives a moving picture when actually the object is not moving it is called an illusion of Movement. This is also known as Phi-phenomenon named by Gestaltist Wertheimer. In Movies, T.V. screens, and electrical advertisements this illusion of movement is noticed.

What exactly mean? When a number of still pictures are projected one after another at a suitable rate, say for a fraction of a second, we see the picture moving though actually, they are static, still pictures. Take an example, you are traveling in a fast-moving train. You find the trees on both sides moving, though actually, they are static. This is also an illusion of movement.

Moon Illusion:
It is an example of the size constancy illusion. Hochberg writes, “It has been known as everybody the moon looks quite large when it is near the horizon than when it is overhead at its zenith even though the visual angle subtended by the moon remains constant”. Recent research on the Moon illusion has supported an ancient explanation.

The earliest explanation for this moon illusion has received some experimental support to argue that: “the sky at the horizon looks further away (due to the intervening fortress and thus the moon seems larger near the horizon.” (Kaufman and Rock). Thus, the distance is taken into account while judging the size of the object.

Question 7.
What is an illusion? Discuss briefly the various theories of optical illusion and Hallucination
Answer:
Although our perceptions are usually quite accurate, they are also subject to distortions called illusions. So these are wrong and incorrect perceptions. Here external stimulation is always present illusions are mistaken or wrong interpretations of sensory experiences. In the true sense, these are not perceptions.

Because in perception, the stimulation is correctly interpreted. Whereas, in illusions, the stimulation is wrongly interpreted. It is obvious that the experience depends upon the process. In short, illusions are misperceptions resulting from misinterpretation of information received by our sensory organs illusions are experienced by all normal human beings, birds, and animals.

They are experienced through the stimulation of any of our senses. It is true that our perception process involves the organic and functional factors for the interpretation of a particular sensory experience.

Theories of Optical Illusion:
Several theories have been developed to explain the causes of optical illusions, and they are discussed here briefly.

The Eye Movement Theory:
According to the eye movement theory, optical illusions sometimes occur if the eye movements are blocked due to the inward projection of other lines. This theory explains the Muller-Lyer Illusion.

The Perspective Theory:
It argues that everyone knows that distant objects appear smaller in size than nearer objects. The perceiver thus compensates for such learning even though they may be equal. Thus, he perceives the objects at a distance to be greater in size than the nearer ones.

The Confusion Theory:
The perceiver observes the percept as a whole, as one unit, and does not analyze it fully. It has been found that if the Muller-Lyer Illusion is analyzed by narrowing down over a range of vision, the illumination would be greatly reduced.

Good Figure Theory:
As a natural tendency, we eliminate the irregularities in a particular figure and fill up gaps to give it a complete meaning. We want to see the figure as a single, meaningful and compact unit. This leads to illusions. It has, therefore, been concluded that illusions like constancies are the natural products of certain factors like need, value, mental set and post experiences, etc. functioning in a given physical environment.

Hallucination:
It has been already discussed how the illusion is a normal affair. Most normal people sometimes or others experience the illusion. But hallucination which is also a type of perceptual error is experienced by mentally disturbed abnormal persons. It is also experienced by those who are under the influence of drugs.

Illusions always have an external stimulus. In hallucination, there is no real sensory stimulus or apparent objective external stimulus, but we perceive it as some object or figure and demonstrate experiencing a hallucination. For instance, when we visualize a ghost every night when there is none when we hear a huzzing sensation inside the stomach.

When there is no such sensation or when we experience severe pain when there is no pain sensation at all, we experience visual, auditory, and tactual hallucinations respectively. Hallucinations may be visual, auditory, olfactory, tactual, gustatory, etc. But usually visual and auditory hallucinations are more commonly experienced.

Hallucinations represent our inner conflicts, fears, anxieties, and mental imbalances. Particularly, in certain forms of insanity like Schizophrenia, hallucination forms a major symptom. Sometimes such patients hear the voice of God, and spirit and are found to actually talk with them in their imagination. Especially common are auditory hallucinations.

Question 8.
Critically examine the role of the organization in perception.
Answer:
Perceptual Organisation:
Very often we are confused. How does perception work? This question has long fascinated psychologists and philosophers, who have generated many theories to explain the key functions and operating principles of perception. Two prominent explanations are there:

• Experience-based influence and
• Gestalt Principles of Perception.

The experience-based inference was the dominant approach established by Hermann. Von Helm Holtz (1966). Helmholtz argues for the importance of experience in perception. According to his theory, an observer uses prior knowledge of the environment to make sense of the proximal stimulus. His theory proposes that we learn how to interpret sensations on the basis of our experience with the world.

But in the early 1.920, Gestalt psychologists maintained that psychological phenomena could be understood only when viewed as organized, structured wholes and not when broken down into primitive perceptual elements. The German word ‘Gestalt’ roughly means form, whole, or configuration. It challenged the views of structuralists and behaviorists by arguing that the whole is more than the sum of its parts.

Gestalt psychologists first study several aspects of perceptual organization systematically. Perceptual organization is the process by which we structure the input and create perceptual coherence. In other words, the perceptual organization puts sensory information together to give us the perception 6f coherence. Many of the organization processes we will discuss in this section were first described by Gestalt theorists who argued that perception depends on the laws of the organization or simple rules by which we perceive shapes and forms.

The organization of sensory data is the beginning of the perceptual process. We will have a confusing world if we do not put together and organize the information available to us through our millions of receptors. Max Wertheimer, Kohler, Koffka, and other Gestalt psychologists have studied and experimented on perceptual organization extensively.

They have discovered a number of principles relating to the organization of perception. According to these psychologists, an individual organizes a multitude of environmental stimuli into meaningful structures and forms. Always a person perceives patterns of stimuli rather than random collections of individual stimuli.

An individual integrates disconnected parts of sensory information into a meaningful structure, which ultimately results in the perception of a whole. So the perception of an object or event is something more than the sum total of its sensory input. To bring out a clear picture of the perceptual process, Gestalt psychologists have discovered a set of principles, which are popularly known as Gestalt laws of perceptional organization.

The Gestalt Laws of perceptual organization are based on three groups of principles:

• Laws of grouping
• Figure-ground relationship and
• The goodness of figures.

Laws of Grouping
Generally, the laws of grouping propose how certain elements in the perceptual field of an individual go together. The following are some important principles of grouping.
The Law of proximity (Nearness):
Very often, elements may be grouped according to their perceived closeness in time or space. In short, elements that appear together tend to be grouped together. Now see the figure below. Here eight lines are seen as four pairs of lines.

Here, a very pertinent question is – how does our visual system accomplish this perceptual grouping, the perception that sets of stimuli are together? The perception of stimuli as ‘grouped’ was first studied extensively by Gestalt psychologists. Max Wertheimer (1923). He presented subjects with arrays of simple geometric figures.

By varying a single factor and observing how it affected the way people perceived the structure of the array, he Was able to formulate a set of laws of grouping including proximity. According to Wertheimer, all else being equal, the nearest (most proximal) elements are grouped together.

The Law of Similarity:
Our tendency to perceive things are belonging together because they share common features reflects the law of similarity. This law proposes that with the proximity among elements being equal, perceptual elements that are similar in some respect tend to be grouped together.

In the above (Fig. 5.3), you see rows of triangles, squares, and circles rather than a column consisting of a triangle, a square, and a circle. In the figure, you observe triangles go with triangles, squares with squares, and circles with circles. Since there is a uniform distance between triangles, squares, and circles; therefore, the law of proximity does not occur.

The Law of Good Continuation:
This principle suggests that elements that appear to follow a particular direction, such as a straight line or a simple curve are readily perceived as forming a group. It is just a tendency to perceive stimuli as a part of a continuous pattern. In the figures below, you see a zigzag line with a curved line running through it, so that each line continues in the same direction it was going prior to the intersection.

The Law of Closure:
We have a tendency to perceive stimuli as complete and balanced even when pieces are missing. Closure makes us see incomplete figures as complete and supplies the missing edge. beyond gaps and barriers. In other words, within limits, physically incomplete figures tend to be perceived as complete figures or as meaningful wholes.

Here, grouping occurs in a way that favors the perception of the more enclosed or complete figure. Now from the figure above (See Fig. -5.5), the following curved line is not perceived as a curved line; rather, it is perceived as a circle. Here the curved line is not perfectly closed, but we see a circle because it is more tempting to perceive a complete figure than simply a curved line.

Attention and Perception:
The process of selecting a stimulus or a group of stimuli from among a large pool of stimuli is called attention. Attention is a complex process, combining a state of focused awareness with a readiness to respond. Attention influences both the stimuli an individual processes and the responses one is likely to make. Perception is a cognitive mechanism of sorting out, interpreting, analyzing, and integrating stimuli involving our sense organs and brain.

Perception is a receptive, selective, symbolic, and affective process. The process by which we structure the input and create perceptual coherence is called perceptual organization. Perception of an object or event is something more than the sum total of its sensory input. The perceptual organization puts sensory information together to give us the perception of coherence.

The Law of Common Fate:
According to this Gestalt principle, elements that are more in the same direction are perceived as together. Of course, this is a type of grouping on the basis of similarity but applied to moving objects. When we see a flock of birds moving in the same direction in the sky, it appears as groups or units. Now you can see how the law of common fate operates in the perceptual organization from the figure above (Fig -5.6).

The Law of pragnaz (Meaningfulness):
The principles of Gestalt grouping operate only when two or more elements, are simultaneously present in a visual field. According to Gestalists, the whole stimulus pattern somehow determines the organization of its own parts. In other words, the whole percept is different from the mere collection of its parts. Gestalt psychologists believe that all of these grouping laws are particular examples of a single general principle the Law of Pragnaz (Meaningfulness).

This principle reveals that the simplest organization requiring the least cognitive effort will always emerge. This law also proposes that we perceive the simplest organization which fits the stimulus pattern. The law of pragnaz is otherwise known as “the minimum principle of perception. ”

Again always we have a tendency to perceive figures as good, regular, and simple, with minimal cognitive effort. Therefore, this law is also known as the Law of Good Figure This law also emphasizes on the fact that we like to see regular and simple forms, rather than irregular forms.

Question 9.
Define the figure – Ground Relationship.
Answer:
Figure – Ground Relationship:
We tend to divide the world around us into two parts – a figure, which has a definite shape, and a location space, and ground, which has no shape, but seems to continue behind the figure and has no definite location. The figure-ground relationship helps clarify the distinction between sensation and perception.

A figure is an object-like region in the forefront and the ground is the backdrop against which the figures stand out. The tendency to perceive a figure as being in front of the ground is very strong. When you perceive a region as a figure, boundaries between light and dark are interpreted as edges or contours belonging to the figure and the ground seems to extend and continue behind these edges.

When we see birds flying in the sky, birds are figures in the background of the sky. When you see the moon in the sky, the moon is the figure and the sky is the background. Similarly, the boat is the figure in the sea.

The following difference in the characteristics of figure and ground relating to any perceptual activity was observed by a Danish Psychologist Rubin( 1958). The figure has a definite shape, whereas the ground appears to have no shape. The figures have the quality of a thing, but the ground appears relatively formless.

The ground seems to continue behind the figure. But the figure seems to be present in front of the ground. The figure seems to be closer to the perceiver with a clear location in space. But the ground is farther away. It has no clear location in space. Always figure appears more impressive, dominant, and better structured. A figure has more associations with meaningful shapes than the ground.

Besides all these above differences, Coren (1969) revealed another difference between figure and ground. According to his observations, the figure is always brighter than the ground. There should be a stable perception of the figure. In short, a figure should be perceived as a figure on different occasions.

But when the figure-ground relationship is ambiguous or is possible for different types of interpretation, the perception tends to become unstable. In these occasions, the figure and ground reverse their positions frequently. Very often, the figure becomes the ground and the ground becomes like a figure simultaneously. Almost spontaneously these reversals occur. Now, look at figure 5.8(a). What do you perceive? A vase or two faces?

Perception of Movement:
Every day, we see the movement of different types of vehicles on the road, and birds and airplanes fly in the sky also, we see the movement of people around us. But how do we perceive this movement? Is there any difference between the perception of movement and the perception of static objects? In some instances, the objects do not move, but we perceive the movements of objects. How does this happen? Psychological, as well as physiological processes, are involved in the perception of movement.

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Solutions Unit 2 Perceptual Process Long Answer Questions Part 2.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class Psychology Unit 2 Perceptual Process Long Answer Questions Part-2

Long Questions With Answers

Question 1.
What is Neuron? Describe the structures and functions of neurons, flow does it differ from a cell?
Answer :
Building Blocks of the Nervous System:
Neurons are basic units of the nervous system. These are the nerve cells that actually process information. The human brain contains about 100 billion neurons. The average neuron is as complex as a small computer and has as many as 10,000 physical connections with other cells. Most neurons are created very early in life, but their shape, size, and connections can change throughout the lifespan. On the whole, the way the neurons function reflect the major characteristics of the nervous system.

Basic Structure of a Neuron:
Not all neurons are alike. They are specialized to handle different information processing functions. However, all neurons have some common characteristics. In general, every neuron has the following structures

• Cell body or soma
• Dendrites
• Axon and
• Terminal buttons or axon terminals
  (See fig. 4.1)

Cell body or Soma:
The cell body or ‘ Soma’ is the enlarged head of the neuron. It is enclosed by the cell membrane. The cell body contains the nucleus of the cell and cytoplasm which sustains its life. Some are the head side of the neuron. It uses oxygen and nutrients to generate energy. Its shape varies depending on the type of neuron. Generally, neurons transmit information in only one direction, that is, from the dendrites through soma to the axon to the terminal buttons.

Dendrites:
Dendrite is the branching fiber from the cell body. A neuron receives information at one end and sends out messages through the other. The part of the cell which receives incoming signals is called a dendrite. The dendrites receive nerve impulses from adjacent neurons or directly from sense receptors and conduct them to the cell body.

Axons relay or send impulses from the cell body to other neurons or to muscle tissue. The very word ‘dendrite’ came from the Greek word ‘dendron’ which means ‘tree’. So dendrites of a neuron look very much like trees. Dendrites are extended from the cell body. Dendrites increase the neuron’s surface area, allowing each neuron to receive input from many other neurons.

Axons:
Two types of extensions are found in the cell body. The short extensions from the cell body are called dendrites. But the longer single-branched extensions are called the axon. It is that part of the neuron which carries information away from the cell body to other cells. Each neuron has only one axon.

The point in the axon nearest to the cell body is called the axon hillock. Axons may have some branches which are called axon collaterals. Axons have two coverings. Of course, these two coverings are not found in every neuron. The outer boundary of the neuron is called the membrane. The membrane serves as a barrier for the neuron.

In some axons, there is a fatty white sheath called the myelin sheath. Axons having myelin sheath are called myelinated axons and which do not have it is called unmyelinated axons. Axons without myelin sheaths are not very good conductors of electricity. With the insulation of myelin sheaths, axons transmit electrical impulses and convey information much more rapidly.

Another covering is found in axons of neurons exclusively outside the brain and spinal cord. It is called a neurilemma. Neurilemma is a very thin covering that takes part in regeneration. If a neuron outside the brain and spinal cord is damaged, it can be regenerated. But the neurons of the brain and spinal cord can not be regenerated, as they do riot have neurilemma in their actions. Once these highly specialized cells are damaged, they are damaged forever.

Terminal Buttons:
An axon conducts information along its length which can be several feet in the spinal cord and less than a millimeter in the brain. At the far end of the axon, some swollen and bulb-like structures are there which are called terminal buttons. Through these buttons, stimulation passes to Astrocytes and oligodendroglia are two important glial cells.

Astrocytes produce chemicals that neurons need to fulfill their functions. On the other hand, astrocytes help control the chemical composition of the fluid surrounding neurons. The main function of oligodendroglia is to provide support to axons to produce myelin sheaths.

Functions neurons:
The main function of the neuron is to communicate messages of stimulation in the form of nerve impulses. Our behavior is only possible through the flow of nerve impulses. Near about 10 billion neurons fire in our brain. They send and receive various nerve impulses. This is the communicative function of the neuron.

Sensory or afferent neurons come from receptors and go to the brain and motor (efferent) neurons go to muscles or glands. The inter-neurons are the linking neurons. An electrochemical reaction occurs inside when a neuron is adequately stimulated. Neurons fire or do not file like a gun. There is no in-between stage. This is called the all-or-none principle.

All neurons follow this principle. They are either off or on. Now let us see how neurons serve their communicative functions and how nerve impulses or nerve energies are formed. The neuron contains intracellular fluid. The fluid on the outside of the neuron is called the extracellular fluid. In between these two types of fluids, there is a cell membrane.

The fluid contains many dissolved substances. Many chemical substances are broken into pieces when they dissolve in water or any fluid. Ions are electrically charged particles when dissolved. The electrical charges are negative or positive and are carried out by ions. As you know, positive and negative electrical charges attract each other.

But only positive electrical charges or negative electrical charges repel each other. Since ions are found in both extracellular fluid and intracellular fluid, the same thing happens in a neuron. (See fig. 4.3) A neuron works to maintain its resting potential. It does not come automatically.

When a neuron is in a resting state, there is a negative electrical charge of about – 70 million votes. Ameli volt one – thousand of a volt. This is called the resting potential of the neuron. The neuron can be best compared with a battery with the inside of the neuron representing the negative pole and the outside of the neuron representing the positive pole (Koester, 1991).

When a neuron is stimulated by externals like heat, light, or sound, the message arrives, and the positively charged ions outside the neuron rush inside the neuron at rates as high as 100 million ions per second. This sudden arrival of positive ions inside the neuron causes the charge to change from negative to positive.

When it reaches a critical level, an electrical nerve impulse known as action potential travels down the axon of the neuron. The very term ‘action potential’ is used to describe the brief wave of positive electrical charge which sweeps down the action.

Generally, an action potential lasts only about 1/1000th of a second. When a neuron sends an action potential, it is commonly said to be ‘ firing’. The action potential abides by the all-or-none principle. Once the electrical impulse reaches a certain intensity, it fires and moves all the way down the axon without losing any of its intensity.

Again, the axon potential moves from one end of the axon to the other. After the nerve impulse has traveled, the positive ions are pumped out of the state. It becomes ready to fire again. The flow of the nerve impulse depends upon the diameter of a particular neuron. A nerve impulse is carried out speedily through a larger diameter and slowly through a smaller diameter.

Absolute Refractory Period:
After the action potential is transmitted by the neuron, it takes rests for a brief period of time. The neuron can not be fired again immediately, no matter how much stimulation it receives. It is just like reloading the gun after each shot. This time span just after carrying action potential during which the neuron is inactive is called the absolute refractory period.

During this period, the neuron is in resting potential. This time span of resting time is usually less than 1/1000th of a second. An action potential can not be produced during the absolute refractory period. When this span is over, again the neuron can cany a nerve impulse. The absolute refractory period is followed by a relative refractory period during which a strong stimulus can make the neuron active.

Threshold Point:
Weak stimuli can not produce an action potential in a neuron. Therefore, a stimulus of a certain strength is needed to produce an action potential. So the point at which a stimulus triggers an action potential is called the threshold of a neuron. Different neurons have different thresholds of excitation. Generally, the threshold point of each neuron is fairly constant.

Cell:
The nervous system of a living organism is made up of cells. A cell may be defined as a unit of living material. All can live independently by synthesizing within themselves substances from the nutrition absorbed from their environment. A cell contains living material called PROTOPLASM which is surrounded by a membrane called plasma membrane or the cell membrane.

Question 2.
Define AH or None law. Neural transmission or synapse?
Answer:
AH or None Law:
According to this principle, the nerve fibers respond completely or not at all. The stimulus has to be a minimum strength for the nerve to react. A weak stimulus will excite a few nerve fibers and we may not have sensory experience at all. But a strong stimulus will excite a larger number of nerve fibers resulting in a more intense experience. We can take the lighting of a match stick for illustration.

We must strike it with a certain amount of force to ignite the powder. If greater power is striking is exerted, the match flame will not be brighter. Beyond the minimum pressure necessary, any extra effort does not add to the brightness of the flame. This is exactly what happens with the stimulation of a nerve fiber. When such an explosion takes place, the nerve fiber is ready for another charge in a fraction of a second.

This principle is called the ‘all-or-none law”. Further, the nerve impulse is an electrochemical stimulation, which does not decrease in its intensity as it travels through the axon. If an axon carries any nerve impulse at all, the impulse continues to maintain the same strength throughout its travel in the axon until it reaches the terminal buttons.

The speed of a nerve impulse depends on the diameter of the axons. The larger the diameter, the greater is the speed. The strength of the nerve impulse depends upon the nature of the axons. It must be remembered that the dendrites and the cell body of a neuron do not obey the all-or-none principle. Only this principle is applicable to axons. So the axon is only governed by this law.

Neural Transmission:
No doubt, our mental functions stem from biological functions. In turn, they also influence our biological activities. Neural activity is biological activity. Neural activity is the biological medium in which all our psychological processes occur. Therefore, it is necessary to gain preliminary knowledge about how neural impulses travel from one part of the biological system to another. Not only the neural impulse travels within a neuron, but it also travels from one neuron to the other. The two major parts of the neural transmission are

• communication within a neuron (action potential) and
• communication between neurons (synaptic transmission).

We have already discussed how neural impulses travel from one neuron to another neurons.
Synapse:
A synapse is a gap or junction which is generally found between the axon tip of one neuron and the dendrite of another. Neurons never touch each other. The nerve impulses are transmitted chemically across a small gap between the neurons. This type of contact provided between the axon of one neuron and the dendrites of another neuron is very interesting and significant.

The gap is very minute so that the conduction can easily go on. It is the synapse that makes our motor learning possible. When an impulse arrives at the end of an axon, electrical conduction in the axon is changed to chemical transmission. The tiny sacs in the terminal buttons of the axons, called synaptic vesicles release a transmitting substance called “neurotransmitters” which can the message to the other neuron.

Before the electrical impulse across the synaptic gap, it must be converted into a chemical signal As their name suggests, neurotransmitters transmit or carry information across the synaptic gap, it must be converted into a chemical signal. As their name suggests, neurotransmitters transmit or carry information across the synaptic gap to the next neuron.

When a nerve impulse reaches the end of the axon, it triggers the release of neurotransmitters which flood the synaptic gap. The dendrites of the receiving neuron come in direct contact with these neurotransmitters and receive the message. The receiving neuron will experience a change if the neurotransmitters are sufficiently stimulated, the received impulse will be conducted within the neuron and will be relayed from neuron to neuron until the message is completed.

It is estimated that the billions of neurons in the brain have trillions of synapses. There are many neurotransmitters. Each of them plays a specific role and functions in a specific pathway. Some neurotransmitters stimulate or excite, whereas, others inhibit neurons from firing (Bloom, Nelson & Lazerson, 2001). some neurotransmitters are both excitatory and inhibitory.

Most neurons secret only one type of neurotransmitter, but many different neurons are simultaneously secreting different neuro-transmitters into synaptic gaps of a single receiving neuron. Researchers have identified more than 50 neurotransmitters, each of which has a unique chemical makeup. Here, let us consider the functions of some neuro-transmitters which have major effects on our behavior.

Question 3.
Describe the structure and function of the spinal cord.
Answer:
Central Nervous System Structure and Function:
The central nervous system is well protected in the bony case of the skull and spinal column. It is divided into the spinal cord and the brain. The sensory or efferent neurons carry impulses from receptors into the central nervous system. The motor or efferent neurons cany impulses originating in the central system outward to effectors.

The Spinal Cord-Structure:
The spinal cord is a continuation of the brain below the medulla. It has a simple structure compared to the brain. It presents the same structure from angle to angle. A cross-section of the spinal cord at any level reveals the same uniform structure. The different parts of the spinal cord are connected to the brain.

The membranes cover the spinal cord and separate the fine neural tissues from the bony box of the central nervous system, lire outer, middle and inner membranes are called dura mater, arachnoid, and parameter respectively. The spinal cord has a rich acroterial blood supply. In a section of the spinal cord, we find grey matter in the central region and white matter in the peripheral region. The grey matter consists of millions of cell bodies of neurons.

The white matter consists of processes of neurons, that is, of axons and dendrites. In a six-foot man, the spinal cord is about the diameter of a little finger and 45 cm long. We do not find the spinal cord in most of the primitive forms of animal life. But when we go higher in the scale of evolution the nerve cells are found to be gradually combining into clusters and groups. These nerve clusters grow up the first step towards the evolution of the spinal cord and brain.

Connected to the spinal cord are thirty-one pairs of peripheral spinal nerves. In each nerve thousands of individual axons are bundled together. Some of these have sensory and some motor function. The sensory branches of the spinal cord enter the cord at the back of the dorsal portion.

The sensory branches cany into the spinal cord impulse generating in the sensory receptors in the skin, joints muscles, and viscera. After synaptic connections in the cord, the sensory activity runs toward the brain. On the other hand, the motor branches of the spinal nerves leave the front or ventral part of the cord. They control the axons of nearby muscles and glands.

Functions of Spinal Cord:
Complete transaction of the spinal cord proves that the spinal cord has communicative and integrative functions. Observations of patients show that if the cut of the spinal cord is above the level of exit of the spinal nerves to the arm and legs, the outcome is quadriplegia. Similarly, if the cut is below the arm level, but above the leg level, the person suffers from paraplegia.

In both cases, there is no recovery. There is complete anesthesia and permanent paralysis of the parts of the body below the level of the cut. Why there is paralysis? Because the sensory stimulations cannot reach the brain. The motor impulses also cannot come out because of this cut in the spinal cord.

So though voluntary movements in the parts of the body before the cut are absent, reflex actions are not lost. The presence of Kneejerk refer and the reflex arising out of the pinching in such patients indicate the integrative capacity of the spinal cord and also its capacity to respond adequately to simple stimuli and by acting differently to different stimuli.

The last act shows a crude kind of decision-making. However, the capacity to perform these actions upon command is lost in paraplegics. The moderating influences of the higher center are also lost. In normal people, the reflexes are under some sort of descending inhibition from the brain. But in these types of patients, the reflexes are relatively larger and more sudden.

Question 4.
What do you mean by reflex action and define its type or characteristic?
Answer:
Reflex Action:
The reflex action is a very simple type of response that occurs automatically without our voluntary knowledge. According to Woodworth, “It is a direct muscular or glandular response to a sensory stimulus.” The examples of reflex actions are many. If someone puts his finger inside the mouth of a new baby, he starts sucking it. When a mosquito comes in front of someone’s eye, it is automatically closed as a protective measure.

Aeroflex action is very quick and rapid because it proceeds directly from the spinal cord. It does not go to the brain while in other activities the sensory stimulation is carried over to the brain through the spinal cord. The brain, in turn, sends out the message for making a particular response. That is why there is some delay in making these responses to activities other than reflex actions.

Types of Reflexes:
Basic reflexes, postural reflexes, segmental reflexes, inter-segmental reflexes, and spinal reflexes, come under different types of reflexes. There are also muscular reflexes such as knee jerks, the withdrawal of the hand, coughing, sneezing, swallowing, crying, and grasping reflexes. Glandular reflexes such as the flow of saliva, and the flow of tears are also notable.

Characteristics of Reflex Action:
The reflex actions are involuntary, unlearnt, and innate in nature like winking, knee erk, withdrawing leg from painful stimulation, sneezing, etc. The individual has no control over such reflexes. They occur very abruptly within a fraction of a second and also terminate very quickly. The involuntary or primary reflexes are purely universal.

The same type of avoidance of the pin pricking, grasping, winking and pupillary reflex is found in almost every person in the world. The reflexes are unlearnt behavior. Most of the behaviors of neonates are expressed in terms of reflexes. In babies, these reflexes are found in their original form.

As they grow up, the number of reflexes decrease and learned behavior increase. In other words, reflexes decrease with age. But there are certain reflexes that continue throughout life, like a knee-jerk, eye blink, etc. Finally, reflexes protect the individual from danger and help in maintaining the safety and welfare of the organism. Reflexes have, therefore, many positive values.

A reflex action is different from an ordinary action. In ordinary action, sensory stimulation in the form of electric waves is sent to the brain through the spinal cord. The brain then sends the message about the response to be made through the effectors. But in the case of reflex action, the message does not go to the brain. The spinal cord controls it. So the reflex action follows the spinal cord.

Reflex Arc:
The structure through which reflex action takes place is called the reflex arc. It involves the sensory nerve, spinal cord, and motor nerve. Take the example of withdrawing the foot when the pin is pricked. Sensory neurons cany impulses to the association.

Question 5.
How many lobes are there in the brain? Describe their location and function.
Answer:
Four lobes, in the brain and these, are:
Frontal lobe:
It is located in front of the nearly vertical fissure of Rolando and above the fissure of Sylvius. It contains three important areas of the brain: the motor area, the association area, and the speech area.

Motor Area:
At the farther end of the frontal lobe and adjacent to the central fissure, we have the motor area Which controls the voluntary movements of various parts of the body like the leg, arm, face, etc. It is technically known as the precentral area (Broadman’s area 4).

Promotor Area:
It is located in front of the precentral area. It also controls complex muscular movements of the body. Each hemisphere is connected to the opposite side of the body. The right limbs are paralyzed if the motor area of the left hemisphere is damaged or destructed and vice versa, complete destruction of the motor area of one of the hemispheres will produce paralysis of the muscles, on the opposite side of the body. The motor area has centers that control different parts of the body such as feet, hips, trunks, etc.

Association Area:
Just below the premotor area, there is an association area that deals with psychological processes like reasoning and memory. These areas are also responsible for giving a coherent form to various experiences of the organism. It is because of the association area, that man is different from animals. The essential function of these areas is to react to immediate sense impressions and symbols as well.

A small baby does not have the capacity to react to symbols. But with age, the power to react with symbols grows and these symbolic processes become a significant part of the association areas. Because of these areas, we are able to correlate all our present experiences with past experiences and make use of memory and thought processes.

ParietalLob:
The parietal lobe lies near the central fissure in the back half of the brain. It has the somesthetic area, which is the most important functional area. It lies adjacent to the central fissure itself. The parietal lobe is the seat of sensation. All the sensory impulses coming from the various parts of the body reach this area. So it is named a somesthetic or body sensitivity area.

Like the motor area, here we have separate centers for receiving the impulses from different parts of the body such as the arm, Teg, etc. All the bodily sensations are projected in this area. If this area is damaged person cannot discriminate between a piece of silk cloth and sandpaper. The sensation of wool, pinprick, mud, or clay is projected in the parietal lobe.

Temporal Lobe:
The major part lying below the lateral fissure is called the temporal lobe. The auditory area is located here. Electrical stimulation in this area leads to the sound of all sorts of noises heard by the subject. Damage to this area leads to deafness. The area for recognition of music is situated in this area If the recognition area of the temporal lobe is destroyed, the person loses the taste sensation. Connected with the temporal lobe is the gustatory area which lies directly below the temporal lobe.

The olfactory area also lies at one end of the temporal lobe. So it is undoubtedly the most important area of sensitivity. Thus, neurophysiology research indicates that this area is more vital than the frontal lobe and it has also been suggested that memory may ultimately be found to depend upon the temporal lobe. It plays a significant role in emotional behavior. So it has close functional contact with the interbrain.

Occipital Lobe:
The shape of the occipital lobe is triangular and it is located at the back portion of the brain. It is the seat of visual sensation. The most important functional area located in this lobe is the visual area. The retina, the crucial Organ of the eye is connected with it. Optic nerves1 coming down from the eye are extended to the occipital lobe. If one of the optic nerves is damaged, either of the eyes will lose the visual ability.

But if one part of the occipital lobe is destroyed, the person will not be able to sec half of the object. Several optic nerves going down from the retina go to different parts of the occipital lobe and we see the objects. The cerebrum and particularly, the cortex, contains the major centers of intelligence, cognitive process, sensational process, and all such creative higher mental processes.

Functions of the Brain:
Sensory Function:
Specialized sensory areas are located to the parietal, temporal, and occipital lobes and they are known as sensory projection areas because nerve impulses originating in receptors are as if it were projected upon them.

Somasthetic Activity:
A portion of the parietal lobe located just behind the fissure of Rolando serves as a terminal or projection area for impulses originating in the skin and in the Kinesthetic receptors. It is called somesthetic or body feeling area. When this area is stimulated electrically in human beings these are reports of temperature, touch, and movement experiences in the body.

But no pain sensation is experienced in the body. Medical reports indicate that even when tumors are operated on from various areas of the cortex, no pain is experienced. So it is concluded that pain sensitivity is mediated by the thalamus and not by the cortex.

Visual Sensitivity:
At the back of each cerebral hemisphere, in the front part of the occipital lobe lies an area called the striate area which is responsible for visual sensation. The visual area in the right cerebral hemisphere receives impulses from the right half of each eye and in the left cerebral hemisphere from the left half of each eye. If the visual cortex of the right hemisphere is damaged, the right parts of both eyes become blind.

Total blindness will be possible only when visual areas are destroyed in both hemispheres. Flashes of light, whirling colors, and similar such visual experiences thus warn the epileptic patient that he is going to be attacked by a fix. How is this possible? Frequent irritation of tissues in the visual cortex of the epileptic caused by tumors brings these visual signals.

Auditory Sensitivity:
The temporal lobe contains the auditory area. When the temporal lobe of epileptic patients is electrically stimulated or is cut, the patient hears buzzing, humming, and even musical sounds. Destruction of the auditory cortex in one hemisphere leads to minor defects in hearing. If, however, both the auditory areas are completely destroyed, the person becomes fully deaf.

This indicates that each car has representation in both hemispheres. Broca, a neurologist, found that when an area on the side of the left hemisphere was destroyed, the loss of speech occurred which is known as Broca’s speech area.

Motor Functions:
These areas of the brain are involved in controlling the movements of the body. The primary motor area, secondary motor area, and supplementary motor area. These areas of the brain are involved in the movement of the body, control of postures, and the tension of muscles. The secondary and supplementary areas do not send long axons to the spinal cord. They send sort axons into the nuclei in the interior of the cerebral hemispheres.

From it, in turn, other short axons go to nuclei in the brain stem, and a chain of such neurons leads down to the spinal cord. When stimulated electrically, part of the motor areas cause movements in the extremities. So when these areas are injured or damaged, the same parts are paralyzed. As already indicated, movements on the right side of the body originate from stimulation of the motor area of the left hemisphere and movement of the left side through stimulation of the right hemisphere.

Damage to the motor area on one side is followed by loss of voluntary movement on the other side of the body. Though voluntary movement stops in a corresponding limb, when a part of the motor area is damaged, the individual is able to move his limbs reflexly in response to strong stimuli because reflex arcs function at the lower level and are not controlled by the higher centers. The supplementary motor area is located in the longitudinal fissure.

These parts of the brain are involved in the control of postures, tensions, and body movement. These areas send short axons while long axons are sent by the premotor area. It is now suspected though not confirmed that these short axons play a major part in the control of movements like trembling and jerking etc. When the lower region is stimulated, the face may be twitched, the mouth may be opened and closed, and the like.

It was earlier believed that paralysis produced by cortical injuries was permanent and the patients never recovered. But experiments with monkeys and rats show that limbs that are paralyzed by the destruction of cells present is the motor cortex sometimes recover their functions, this brings the hope that if paralyzed human beings are given proper training, they might also start showing muscular movements. It has also been proved in some cases by messages etc.

Associative Functions:
The association areas of each side of the cerebral cortex are connected with each other, with sensory and motor areas, with the thalamus, and with similar areas on the opposite side. The chief function of the association area is to correlate and integrate the simpler functions of the sensory and motor areas since the sensory area act as gateways into the cortex and the motor areas act as exits.

Therefore, injuries to the cortex outside but near the visual areas do not cause blindness but destroy awareness of depth and recognition of visual objects. According to Munn, The cerebral cortex is a device not only for receiving sensory and initiating motor impulses but also through its association neurons for connecting, relating, and integrating functions.

These integrative functions of the cortex plus its susceptibility to modification during an organism’s life | time provide the foundation of such psychological processes as learning, recalling, past experiences and thinking”.

Question 6.
State the structure and function of the autonomic nervous system.
Answer:
Autonomic Nervous System:
The anatomical distinction between the central nervous system and the autonomic nervous system lies in that the nerve fibers of the A.N.S. have always a junction with another neuron outside the brain or spinal cord on the way to muscles or glands. But such outside synapses are not found for nerves running to the straight muscles, that is, the central nervous system. By and large.

The A.N.S. controls the internal environment of the O while the CNS controls the impulses from the sense organs, organizes them in the brain, and sends the motor impulses to the muscles. Why is it called A.N.S. ? Because many of the activities it controls are autonomous or self-regulating activities such as digestion and circulation which continue from life to death even when the person is asleep or unconscious. Its activity never stops in a living organism.

Division of Autonomic Nervous System

• Sympathetic System
• Parasympathetic System

Sympathetic System:
On either side of the spinal column, closely connected with it through the spinal nerves the chains of nerve fibers and masses of cell bodies from which fibers extend to various visual organs. These are called sympathetic chains. This sympathetic outflow takes place through the thoracic and lumber regions of the spinal cord. Due to this it is also sometimes called “The Thora Cicolumbar System”.

Structure:
The sympathetic nervous system consists of 22 sympathetic ganglia in a man:
arranged along the spinal cord. These fibers originate in the spinal cord and either end upon the sympathetic ganglion or they may extend to the other bundles of the ganglion chain. By this, they help in connecting the various sympathetic ganglia with each other or they may go to the distant parts of the body or end near the muscles or glands.

Besides, there are three important ganglia in the neck region which are known as superior, middle, and inferior ganglia. These cervical ganglia play a significant role in controlling the blood vessels of the heart and head, and dilator fibers of pupils. In general, they influence the blood supply of the brain.

Functions:
As the name suggests, the sympathetic nervous system sympathizes with the organism during an emergency situation or need by mobilizing all bodily energies effectively in the direction of facing an immediate need or emergency situation. When the man is asleep, he is at the lowest level of activity.

At this stage, the sympathetic system is at its minimum in its function. Suddenly, he is awakened by the loud noise “Fire, Fire”. Immediately his level of activation rises to the maximum through the activation of the sympathetic system. The sympathetic system puts itself into action to meet this emergency situation. The man gets up and runs with maximum speed to help himself or others out of the fire.

The sympathetic system constricts the visceral blood vessels and directs them to muscles and the brain increases the rate of the heartbeat so that more blood is pumped through to the heart, and helps the secretion of adrenalin which raises the level of blood sugar necessary for more energy, etc. There is also inhibition of intestinal and gastric activity, widening of the pupils.

Let us take the case of a person who is angry. During anger, the action of the sympathetic system includes dilating the pupil of the eye, lifting the lid and protecting the ball, speeding up the heart rate, and raising blood pressure. There is also the cessation of digestive movements, peristaltic contractions of the stomach, and of secretion of digestive juices.

The blood that normally goes to these organs is diverted to the muscles to enable the O to face the emergency situation. All these duplicate the energy of the person. In this manner, the sympathetic system makes the O ready to face the emergency situation by helping in organizing the bodily resources to meet the situation more effectively.

Parasympathetic System:
It is a division of the autonomic Nervous System concerned with projecting and conserving the body’s resources, preserving normal functions, and maintaining a calm emotional state. It has two divisions :

• the cranial part
• The sacral part.
  So it is called the craniosacral system. But here there is no such chain of parasympathetic ganglia.

The Cranial Part:
It consists of all the nerves and outlets that one, associated with the brain and the head.

The Sacral Part:
It comes from the extreme lower end of the spinal cord.

Question 7.
Describe the location of the brain.
Answer:
He conducted several experiments on rats and other animals to find out the effect of the removal of various parts of the cerebrum on psychological purposes.

• Several experiments on rats and of the problem and cerebral lessons; and
• the effects of destruction on various sizes and locations on the maze learning habits are notable.

The findings of these studies showed an intimate relationship between the difficulty of the problem and the effect of cerebral lessions. There was an increase in error while learning when cortical destructions 1 were higher. Lashley finally concluded that the quantity of the lesson was a significant factor in retardation in learning. lie found that many problems like the skill of ordinary maze learning can be acquired equally well with one part of the cortex as with another.

He further found that there was a positive relationship between the amount of cortex and the difficulty of the task that is, as the difficulty of the task increases the greater amount of cortex is required to solve it. Even when half of the cortex was removed, simple tricks were learned equally quickly, but difficult problems could not be solved.

In one experiment by Lashley (1929) adequate training was given to monkeys to open the door by handling a latch. After learning was complete the monkeys were decorticated. Some portions of the frontal lobe were removed by surgical operation, without any danger to the life of the monkey. After decortication, it was found that some portions of the brain are at least responsible for certain work.

But later he also found that money could be educated and they could relearn the previous learning after decortication. From these experimental findings, he established two principles to explain the functional localization of the brain, that is, whether the brain acts as a whole or in parts.

Principle of Equipotentiality:
Lashley was of opinion that complex learning does not depend upon the definite structure of a specific area of the cortex. On the other hand, he noted that complex learning depends upon the total organization of the cortex. The principles of equipotentiality hence mean that with some very specific exceptions.

One part of the cerebral cortex is potentially the same as another part in its functional capacity related to the learning process. In other words, the capacity of the uninjured or intact part of the brain for functioning as a substitute for other parts in case of emergency is called the principle of equipotentiality.

All parts of the cortex, therefore, are equal potential for the learning function. Thus, Lashley in his book Brain Mechanism and Intelligence (1929), has remarked, “The term equipotentiality I have used to designate the apparent capacity of the intact part of a functional area to carry out with or without reduction in efficiency, the functions which were lost by destruction as a whole.

This capacity varies from one area to another and with the character of the functions involved. It probably holds only for the association areas and for function more complex than simple sensitivity or motor coordination.”

The Principle of Mass Action:
To Lashley, the principle of mass action meant that the brain fundamentally functions as a hole. He said that the more the cortex available, the better would be the learning capacity. In this connection, he has pointed out that the animals with various amounts of their cortices removed. Showed a general reduction in sensitivity, aggressiveness, and in exploratory activity in puzzle-born learning situations in comparison to their normal counterparts.

What he intended to say is that the cerebral cortex seems to be responsible for the characteristics of one’s behavior as a whole. That is why the removal of one part of the cerebrum affects learning in a general manner. The most important generalized function of the brain is to establish associations between our various present and past experiences.

The association area of our brain contains all our experiences and it is because of this connection of experiences that our mind acts as one unit. Franz later found that the amount of brain has also got a major contribution to higher psychological activities and complex learning processes. He noticed that if a small portion of the cortex will be decorticated, it will not decrease the activities undertaken by this part.

The other parts of the brain will take charge of it and the work will be somehow managed. But if a longer part is taken away there will be a deterioration in learning and other complex mental activities. It is thus proved that more amount of cerebral cortex is needed for higher psychological processes like learning, application of intelligence and judgment, synthesizing ability, thinking, problem-solving, perception, etc.

This principle, therefore, states that the brain acts as a whole or in a mass. The principle of equipotentiality and mass action is confirmed and supported by many experimental studies on apes, monkeys, human beings, etc. These principles are also confirmed by the findings of studies on human beings whose parts of the brain were injured or damaged by disease or accident.

Analysis of these principles and the experimental findings in their support do prove that simple sensory-motor functions may show a relatively high degree of localization while complex and higher-order mental activities require less localization and more mass action. Therefore, it would probably be more appropriate to conclude that the brain acts in widespread patterns.

patterns that include many cortical areas and their connecting association fibers. Loss of any large portion of the cortex will disturb the interaction of parts and break up the usual pattern. It is the general type of function. So, we have to accept somewhere between the two. In ordinary simple work, the brain acts in part.

But in higher-order activities and higher mental processes, coordinating the integrative function of the entire brain is essential. So, in such cases the brain functions as a whole. There is evidence for the localization of sensory and muscular movements. There is some indication that the frontal lobes are concerned with the management of planned activity and that the rear half of the brain is more concerned with knowing and understanding things.

Learning seems to be an unlocalized function and adjustment of the organism for the total situation and for a goal is probably a function of the entire cerebrum. It would, therefore, be not appropriate to generalize about the principles of complete equi-potentiality of the functions of various areas of the cerebrum. Besides, the evidence derived from rats, cannot be applied with equal confidence in human organisms.

Experiments on monkeys show a much greater loss in the ability to learn when their frontal lobes were destroyed than the damage elsewhere. Some cases of human subjects also indicated that there is a considerable degree of specificity in the cortex. However, further research in this area is necessary to draw a generalized conclusion on the functional localization of the brain.

Question 8.
What are the methods applied to study the brain?
Answer:
Some of the important methods to study the localization of functional areas of the brain are discussed below:
Anatomical Method:
In this method, the anatomist attempts to find out various nerve pathways by observing the nature of neural tissues under the microscope. By this method, the anatomist not only learns the origin and termination of different nerve fibers but he also finds out what sense organs send fibers where and what parts of the brain send motor fibers to the spinal cord. This method only finds out the structure of the brain and spinal cord. The functions of the brain and the spinal cord are not traceable by this method.

Method of Extirpation or Aplation Method:
Extirpation means to destroy or cut off. In this method, a particular part of the brain is destroyed or cut off and its effect is studied on the functions of the brain or human behavior. The behavior of the organism is carefully observed and recorded. Then it cuts off a specific part of the brain and observes its effects on the behavior of the ‘O’, that is whether it changes his behavior or not.

Action Potential and Electrical Recording Method:
Neurons produce electric currents when they conduct and the potentials underlying them can be recorded with a cathode ray oscilloscope. By correlating the parts having the greatest electrical activity with the nature of the stimulus one can find out which area of the brain is involved in various types of sensations and how the body surface is represented on surfaces in the brain.

Method of Stimulation:
It is a direct method. Different parts of the brain are stimulated with mild electric currents. While making brain operations on patients an introspective report is taken from the patients on the sensations they experience while stimulation. Using this method, functions of different parts of the brain can be located.

Chemical Method:
In this method certain chemicals are used to distinguish axons from cell bodies; certain parts of neural tissues from others to observe their specific functions. Similarly, it is used to find out which axons are part of the same neurons. Otherwise, because of their complexity, it is not possible to say these things merely by looking through a microscope. Behavioral changes are also observed by using various chemicals on the external and internal parts of the brain.

Scanning Method:
Today medical science has made rapid progress, thanks to the continuous and meaningful research in the area, particularly in the West. Scanning means taking pictures intently of all parts. With the development of scamming methods, new models of X-ray machines, and computers, the functions of the brain are being studied in a very scientific and organized manner.

Through scanning, it is possible to get an X-ray picture of every millimeter of the brain. Scanning of the brain helps in knowing the damages and destruction made to the brain because of accidents. Alzheimer’s disease, Korsakoft’s Syndrome, and many other diseases like a brain tumors.

There are different types of Scanning like Cat Scans, Pet scans, and MRIs, etc.
Cat Scan:
The Cat Scan method is used when one is interested to know and analyze the minute details of the functioning of the brain of an individual. Scanning of the brain is recommended particularly when the doctor has to diagnose to patient.

Question 9.
Describe the structure of the human brain.
Answer:
The Brain:
Modem scientific psychology recognizes that is the brain, not the heart or soul which guides human behavior. Recently, technological innovations such as the electron microscope and brain scanning systems have led to an explosion in a number of new theories and tests of how the brain works. It has been found that an adult brain weighs about 1.36 kg and contains around 100 billion neurons.

The brain receives one-fifth of the blood pumped by the heart. If deprived of oxygen for 3 to 4 minutes, the brain cells are irreparably damaged. Brain investigation reveals that while some mental functions are widely distributed among different areas in the brain, man activities are highly localized.

Different areas in the brain are specialized for specific jobs. Our brain controls almost all the activities that we do, except the reflex activities which are controlled by the spinal cord.

Structure of Brain:
With the development of the human embryo inside the mother’s womb, the nervous system begins forming as a long, hollow tube in the back of the embryo. After three weeks of conception, cells making up the tube differentiate into a mass of neurons, most of which then develop into three major regions of the brain – the hindbrain, which is adjacent to the top part of the spinal cord, the mid-brain, which rises above the hindbrain and the forebrain, which is the uppermost region of the brain (see fig. 4.6).

Hindbrain:
It is the lowest portion of the brain located at the rear of the skull. In other words, the backside of the brain is called the hindbrain. It has three subdivisions medulla, cerebellum, and pons. The medulla begins where the spinal cord enters the skull. It is also called the medulla oblongata.

This structure is located at the lowest portion of the brain stem. It is a link between the brain stem and the spinal cord. The medulla helps to control our breathing and regulates reflexes which allow us to maintain an upright posture. It also controls some vital and autonomic functions such as respiration, circulation of blood digestion of food, etc.

It has some roles in sneezing, sleep, and coughing also. The cerebellum extends from the rear of the hindbrain, just above the medulla. It is also called the ‘Tittle brain’ because it is a miniature version of the cerebrum. Its outer surface looks grey and the interior white. It consists of two rounded structures thought to play important roles in motor coordination (Middleton & Strick, 2001).

Its vital function is to control body balance and posture. It also controls biological rhythm or perception of time. Injury to the cerebellum may lead to a lack of motor coordination, stumbling, and loss of muscle tone. When the cerebellum is damaged, movements become uncoordinated and jerky.

Extensive damage to the cerebellum even makes it impossible to stand up. It also stores the memory of movement patterns so that we do not have to concentrate on how to walk, dance, or ride a bicycle. Moreover, the cerebellum is associated with coordinating movements, controlling posture, and maintaining equilibrium.

The Pons lies between the medulla and the midbrain. It is a Latin word, which means ‘bridge’. But it does not look like a bridge. It is so named because of the bundle of nerves that passes through it. the pons region connects to the cerebellum and is involved in dreaming and waking. It contains several clusters of fibers involved in sleep and arousal (Kolb, Whishaw & Terao: 2003, 2004). Moreover, the pons transmits information about body movement and is also involved in functions related to attention, sleep, and alertness.

The Midbrain:
The shortest part of the brain is the midbrain. It is also the topmost part of the brain which is located in the central region. It is just a tube-like structure. The outside of the midbrain looks white and the inside looks grey. Through this tube, a fluid-like substance called cerebrospinal fluid passes which provides nutrition to the brain. Besides providing nutrition, it has got sensory and motor pathways. The midbrain contains primitive centers for vision and hearing and plays a key role in the regulation of visual reflexes.

Two systems in the midbrain are of special interest – One is the reticular formation or Reticular Activating System (RAS) and the other one is the brain stem, the RAS begins in the hindbrain and ascends through the region of the midbrain into the lower part of the forebrain. It is a network of neurons crossing each other.

The size of RAS is just like a small finger of a man. RAS has two parts ascending reticular system and descending reticular system. The ascending reticular system sends impulses to the cerebral cortex and the descending system sends impulses downward to the RAS. RAS also receives impulses from the cerebral cortex.

Electrical stimulation of RAS awakens sleeping animals. If the RAS is damaged, the animal may not die but will sleep forever. This kind of sleep is called comatose or simply coma. Once it is destroyed, it does not recover. RAS also acts as a relay station for emotional behavior. The RAS is less activated during sleep. It is connected with the cerebrum by receptors and effectors. Further, it plays an important role in selective attention and filtering of information through learning.

The brain stem is so-called because it looks like a stem (Carlson, 2001). It is the most ancient part of the brain. The brain stem connects with the spinal cord at its lower end and then extends upward to encase the reticular formation in the midbrain. Clumps of cells in the brain stem determine alertness and regulate basic survival functions, such as breathing, heartbeat, and blood pressure.

The Forebrain:
It is the most important part of the brain. Virtually it possesses all the parts concerned with the perception, and coordination of behavior patterns including those of emotion, motivation, learning, memory, language, and thinking. The significant parts of the forebrain are the thalamus, hypothalamus, limbic system, and cerebrum.

Thalamus:
Thalamus is located almost in the exact center of the human brain. It consists of an egg-shaped cluster of neurons. Thalamus connects the cerebrum with peripheral parts of the body. All the nerves come and go through it. So it is an important relay station for incoming sensory impressions from all parts of the body. Further, it is called the central switchboard of the brain.

The main function of the thalamus is to send incoming sensory impulses to respective parts of the cerebral cortex. Most neural input to the cerebral cortex goes through the thalamus. Thalamus is also involved in controlling sleep and attention in coordination with other brain structures, including RAS. When the cortex wants to inhibit or control certain automatic activities, it sends the impulses to the thalamus.

Basal Ganglia:
Just above the thalamus and under the cerebral cortex lie large clusters of neurons called basal ganglia. The basal ganglia work with the cerebellum and the cerebral cortex to control and coordinate voluntary movements. These large clusters of neurons or ganglia enable people to engage in habitual behaviors such as riding a bicycle. People with damage to basal ganglia suffer from either unwanted movement, such as constant writing or jerking of limbs, or too little movement, such as the slow and deliberate movements of those with Parkinson’s disease.

Hypothalamus:
Hypothalamus is a small forebrain structure located just below the thalamus. It lies at the base of the cerebrum. It regulates the functioning of the Autonomic Nervous System. Hypothalamus monitors three pleasurable activities eating, drinking, and sex – as well as emotion, stress, and reward. It also directs the endocrine system. Hypothalamus acts as a regulator of the body’s internal state.

It also plays an important role as an integrative location for handling stress (Hayashi and others, 2004). Much of the integration is accomplished through the hypothalamus’s action on the pituitary gland, an important endocrine gland located just below it. If certain areas of the hypothalamus are stimulated electrically, a feeling of pleasure results.

The Limbic System:
The limbic system is composed of a group of structures that is found in all mammals, sometimes called the old brain. Only mammals and reptiles have limbic systems. It is a ring-like structure having several other structures. The limbic system is structurally interconnected with the hypothalamus. So it is involved in the drives of hunger, sex, aggression, and some of the behaviors regulated by the hypothalamus.

The three principal structures in the limbic system are the amygdala, hippocampus, and septum. The amygdala has an important role in aggression. It is involved in memory, emotions, and certain basic motivations. The damage to the amygdala causes an animal to be less fearful, over-curious, hypersexual, and more exploratory.

Question 10.
What is the endocrine gland and discuss the functions of the endocrine system?
Answer:
The endocrine system is a set of glands that regulate the activities of certain organs by releasing their chemical products into the bloodstream, like the nervous system, it plays a crucial role in our behavior and development previously, the endocrine system was considered separate from the nervous system.

However, today neuroscientists know that two systems are interconnected. The endocrine system consists of ductless glands which secret complex chemical substances called hormones, directly into the bloodstream. The human body is not only under the control of the nervous system but also of a complementary system of hormones.

This system is controlled by Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) activity and like ANS, it is not under conscious control but regulated by the body itself. It helps in maintaining bodily homeostasis. Hormones are involved in different bodily functions and behaviors. They influence body growth, sexual development arousal, mood, and metabolism.

Endocrine or ductless glands are stimulated in 3 ways:

• by chemical level in the bloodstream,
• other hormones and
• nerve impulses from the Bram

Once secreted into the blood, hormones are promoted it’s their bodily targets. This system not only sustains our slow and continuous bodily processes but also helps us to respond to crises. During an emergency, the Iannone ‘adrenaline’ is released into the bloodstream, energizing our body for quick defensive action for ‘ fight’ or ‘ flight’.

‘Hormones’ are generally called ‘the messengers of life’ because their influence is diverse but specific (Carpo 1988). Different hormone factories ‘sites of our body produce chemicals that influence a variety of bodily processes. A small structure of the limbic system, the hypothalamus, is the brain center in charge of the endocrine system.

In the hypothalamus, specialized cells receive messages from other brain cells committing to release a number of different chemicals. These chemicals influence the adjacent pituitary gland, the so-called master gland which can either stimulate or inherit the release of hormones from other glands.

The functions of the Endocrine System:
The important functions of the endocrine system are discussed below:

• The pituitary gland
• Thyroid gland
• Parathyroid
• Adrenal gland
• The pancreas
• The Gonads

The Pituitary Gland:
Although the pituitary gland is situated within the cranium, still it is a part of the endocrine system, rather than the nervous system. This gland is popularly known as the master gland. It is located in a small bony hollow at the base of the brain. Centre of the skull. The size of the pituitary gland is very small. But control growth and regulates other glands. This pea-sized gland is controlled by the hypothalamus.

The pituitary gland has:

• anterior
• posterior pituitary secretions.

Anterior:
The anterior pituitary secretions help growth. Hypersecretion of it causes gigantism and a rugged personality.

Posterior pituitary secretions:
The posterior pituitary gland hormone raises blood pressure, regulates metabolism, and increases the contraction of smooth muscles in the intestine and uterus.

Thyroid Gland:
The thyroids are located in the neck at either side of the ‘Adam’s apple’. These glands produce thyroxin, which influences the body’s metabolism rate. It also helps to control the rate of physical growth and influences the structure and functions of the nervous system.

Question 11.
What is the cerebrum and describe how does the brain function?
Answer:
The Cerebrum:
The cerebrum or cerebral cortex is more highly developed in humans than in any other animals. The cerebral cortex is divided into two halves or hemispheres. It is the highest region of the forebrain and is the most recently developed part of the brain in the evolutionary scheme. In humans, the cerebral cortex covers the lower portions of the brain like a large cap.

The cortex is greatly convoluted with lots of grooves and bulges which considerably enlarge its surface area. It is connected with other parts of the brain. Literally, millions of axons connect the neurons of the cerebral cortex with those located elsewhere in the brain.

The cortex looks gray since it consists largely of cell bodies and unmyelinated fiber. A very depressed or fissure divides the cerebrum into two equal halves – the left hemisphere and the right hemisphere. The left hemisphere is connected with the right-hand side of the body. The right hemisphere is connected with the left-hand side of the body.

The two hemispheres are connected with each other by a thick fiber bundle known as the corpus callosum. Each hemisphere is divided into four parts or lobes by two fissures – the frontal lobe, the parietal lobe, the temporal lobe, and the occipital lobe. However, the occipital lobe is not clearly demarcated. It is located at the rear of the brain.

The frontal lobe is that portion of the cortex behind the forehead which is involved in the control of voluntary muscles, intelligence, and personality. The frontal lobes of humans are especially large when compared with those of other animals. This lobe is primarily responsible for the planning, execution, and control of movements.

Without intact frontal lobes, humans are emotionally shallow, -5 distractible, listless, and insensitive to social contexts (Hopper & Teresi, 1992). Individuals with frontal lobe damage become so distracted by irrelevant stimuli that they often cannot carry out some basic directions. An important part of the frontal lobe is the prefrontal cortex, which is at the front of the motor cortex.

It is believed to be involved in higher cognitive functions such as planning and reasoning (Manes & Others, 2002). Neuroscientists refer to the prefrontal cortex as an executive control system because of its role in monitoring and organizing thinking (Owen, 1997). The parietal lobe is located at the top and towards the rear of each hemisphere.

It is involved in registering spatial location, attention, and motor control. This cortex receives information from the somatic senses. Therefore, this area is specialized for touch, pressure, and pain. On the whole, it controls incoming sensory information. The portion of the cerebral cortex just above the ears is the temporal lobe. It is involved in hearing, language processing, and memory.

The temporal lobes have a number of connections to the limbic system. Individuals with damage to the temporal lobes can not file experiences into long-term memory. The area of recognition of music is situated in this area. If this area is destroyed, an individual may lose the taste sensation.

The occipital lobe is located at the back portion of the brain. Its shape is triangular. It is the seat of the visual sensation. The most important functional area located in this lobe is the visual area. The retina is connected to this area. A stroke or wound in the occipital lobe can cause blindness or wipe, out a portion of the person’s visual field.

In the cerebral cortex, there are some areas that are not directly concerned with sensory or motor functions. These are called association areas. Each lobe is having an association area. They play significant roles in various sensory systems and in transmitting sensory input to programmers for motor output. Further, the association areas are involved in complex cognitive activities such as thinking, reasoning, learning, remembering, etc.

How does the brain function?
Very often, the question arises whether or not the brain functions as a ‘whole’. Physiological psychologists are trying to answer this question since the days of Johannes Muller. There are differences in views. A group of experts believed that each part of the cerebrum had a definite function. Another group believed that parts of the brain are functionally interchangeable. Modem findings indicated that the brain functions in parts as well as as a whole.

The experimental findings of Franz and Lashley on localization are expressed in two theories:

• the theory of equipotentiality and
• the theory of mass action.

Theory of Equipotentiality:
The theory of equipotentiality suggests that all parts of the cortex are equal potential enough for simple learning functions. Lashley has conducted a good number of studies on animals. According to him, complex learning does not depend upon the definite structure of a specific area of the cortex, rather, complex learning depends upon the total organization of the cortex.

This principle suggests that with some very specific exceptions, one part of the cerebral cortex is potentially the same as another part in its functional capacity related to the learning process. Therefore, all parts of the cortex are equal potential for learning function.

The Principle of Mass Action:
The principle of Mass Action reveals that the brain fundamentally functions as a whole. The more parts of the cortex an available, the better would be the learning capacity. In his study, Lashley found that animals having decorticated cortex demonstrated a general reduction in sensitivity, exploratory activities, and aggressiveness. The removal of any part of the brain affects the learning process.

Later, Franz found that the amount of brain has got major contributions to higher psychological activities and complex learning processes. The principles of Mass Action and Equipotentiality were confirmed and supported by many experimental studies on apes, monkeys, human beings, etc.

These principles were also confirmed by the findings of the studies on human beings whose parts of the brain were injured or damaged by disease or accident. Probably it would be more appropriate to conclude that the brain acts in widespread patterns, which include many cortical areas and their connecting association fibers.

Damage to the large portion of the cortex would certainly disturb the interaction of parts and break up the usual pattern. It is true that the brain acts in part in ordinary simple work. But in higher mental activities and higher mental processes, the coordinating and integrative function of the entire brain is necessary. In such cases, the brain functions as a whole. However, to draw a generalized conclusion on the functional localization of the brain, further research in this area is essential.

Question 12.
What is the peripheral Nervous System?
Answer:
The peripheral nervous system is composed of all the neurons forming the nerve fibers that connect the CNS to the rest of the body. It consists of sensory and motor neurons that transmit messages to and from the central nervous system. Our brain will be isolated from the world without a peripheral nervous system. This system has two divisions.

• Somatic Nervous System.
• Autonomic Nervous System.

These are described below:

Somatic nervous system:
The somatic nervous system is the first part of the peripheral nervous system. It is under voluntary control and regulates the actions of the skeletal muscles of the body. The somatic nervous system has both sensory neurons and motor neurons. The sensory neurons mn from our sense organs toward the central nervous system for perception and learning etc.

On the other hand, the motor neurons carry messages from the brain to the striped muscles of the body for activities. Action like moving our legs or hands, running, jumping, and riding is possible by the somatic nervous system. On the whole, the somatic nervous system controls the striped muscles of our body.

Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)
The very word autonomic means self-regulating or independent. ANS is the second part of the peripheral nervous system. It is involuntary and governs activity, which is not normally under the direct control of the individual. The ANS works even when we are asleep. ANS sustains basic life processes.

The ANS operates constantly, regulating bodily processes we do not usually control consciously, such as respiration, digestion, and arousal. On the whole, the autonomic nervous system is called as autonomic because many of the activities it controls are autonomous or self-regulating and continue even when a person is asleep or unconscious.

The autonomic nervous system (ANS) is subdivided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems. Both these divisions have survival functions for which the autonomic nervous system is called as survival nervous system. The ANS is intimately connected with the spinal cord.

The sympathetic division tends to act as a unit. It is exciting in emotional situations. The sympathetic division governs responses to stress in emergencies when action must be quick and powerfully, energized. This is the ‘fight or flight response system. In short, the sympathetic nervous system is the division for emergency survival.

For example, during emotional excitement, digestion is stopped, heart rate is increased, blood flowing to the internal organs is directed to the skeletal muscles and the endocrine system is stimulated to release several chemicals which increase the effectiveness of the entire motor system. The sympathetic division energizes us to respond to a stressor quickly.

But the parasympathetic division monitors the routine operation of the body’s internal functions. It is concerned with projecting and conserving the body’s resources, preserving normal functions, and maintaining a calm emotional state. This division returns the body to calmer functioning after sympathetic arousal. Unlike the sympathetic division, the parasympathetic division tends to affect one organ at a time.

In short, whereas the sympathetic system is activated during violent emotions, the parasympathetic system is dominant and active during normal times or during quiescence. Activation of this system slows the heartbeat, lowers blood pressure, and conserves as well as protects bodily resources. The sympathetic and parasympathetic systems do not compete with one another, rather they function in a coordinated manner.

Points to remember

Question 1.
What is Neuron? Describe the structures and functions of a Neuron, How does it differ from a cell?
Building Blocks of the Nervous System:
Neurons are basic units of the nervous system. On the whole, the way the neurons function reflect the major characteristics of the nervous system.
Basic Structure of a Neuron:
In general, every neuron has the following structures.

• Cell body or soma
• Dendrites
• Axon and
• Terminal buttons or axon terminals

Question 2.
Central Nervous System and Structure and Function.
Answer:
The central nervous system is well protected in the bony case of the skull and spinal column. It is divided into the spinal cord and the brain.

Question 3.
State the structure and function of the autonomic nervous system.
Answer:
Autonomic Nervous System:
The anatomical distinction between the central nervous system and the autonomic nervous system lies in that the nerve fibers of the A.N.S. have always a junction with another neuron outside the brain or spinal cord on the way to muscles or glands.

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Solutions Unit 2 Perceptual Process Short Answer Questions.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class Psychology Unit 2 Perceptual Process Short Answer Questions

Short-Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Voluntary Attention.
Answer:
It is also called effortful attention. When attention requires special effort on the part of the attention to attend to it, it is called voluntary attention.

Question 2.
Symbolic Process.
Answer:
Sensory stimulation arouses certain neural activities which have their trace in the nervous system. These are popularly known as neural traces.

Question 3.
Figure and ground.
Answer:
Gestalt psychologists have shown that the factor of figure-ground relationships operates even in the simplest form of perceptual organization. Primitive perception is only figure and ground perception.

Question 4.
Muller Lyer – Illusion.
Answer:
It is also known as a geometrical illusion. Muller and Lyer, two psychologists, observed this kind of error in perception for the first time is called Muller Lyer illusion.

Question 5.
The illusion of Movement.
Answer:
The observer perceives a moving picture when actually the object is not moving it is called the illusion of movement. Examples of the illusion of movement are movies, T. V. screens, and electrical advertisements.

Question 6.
Moon Illusion.
Answer:
It is an example of the size constancy illusion. Recent research on moon illusion has supported an ancient explanation.

Question 7.
Illusions.
Answer:
Illusions are wrong perceptions. Illusion is the wrong or mistaken interpretation of a sensory experience.

Question 8.
Hallucination.
Answer:
It has been already discussed how the illusion is a normal affair. Hallucination which is also a type of perceptual error is experienced by mentally disturbed abnormal persons. Hallucinations may be visual, auditory, olfactory, tactual, gustatory, etc. Hallucinations represent our inner conflicts, fears, anxieties, and mental imbalances. Visual hallucination follows auditory hallucination.

Question 9.
Symbolic process.
Answer:
Sensory stimulations arouse certain neural activities which have their trace in the nervous system. These are popularly known as neural traces. These traces act as symbols or substitutes for the original stimulus or experience. These symbolic images help us while perceiving something. This symbolic process is activated by any experience in an image.

Question 10.
Size Constancy.
Answer:
The size of a stimulus varies with the change in distance between the percept and the perceiver. A tree that is usually perceived at a distance of 5 feet will look very small. Martin did an experiment on size constancy. Considerable constancy was indicated by the observer in the perception of the size of the blocks. But in spite of this significant difference in the sense of impression, we perceive the tree to be of its usual size.

Question 11.
PHJ Phenomenon.
Answer:
Phiophenomcnon is an illusion of movement. When objects are more in quick succession, they appear as one continuous unit or whole. In an experiment, the phenomenon is when two more lights are of optimum brightness, size, and distance. Human adults, children, and animals all are used by this type Of illusion of movement. It is also due to the basic characteristics of the brain activity involved in perception.

Question 12.
Neuron.
Answer:
The entire nervous system is composed of only two kinds of cells. Glia cells and nerve cells are neurons. Glia cells provide a mechanical framework supporting the networks of neurons.

Question 13.
Parietal Lobe.
Answer:
The parietal lobe lies near the central fissure in the back half of the brain. It has the somesthetic area, which is the most important functional area.

Question 14.
Hind Brain.
Answer:
The brain includes the cerebellum, medulla, and pons. The medulla and pons constitute the lower part of the brain stem.

Question 15.
Medulla.
Answer:
The medulla connects each side of the cerebellum with the opposite side of the cerebrum. The medulla joins the spinal cord to higher parts of the brain.

Question 16.
Scanning method.
Answer:
Scanning means taking pictures intently of all parts. The scanning method of the brain helps is knowing the damages and destruction made to the brain.

Question 17.
Cell.
Answer:
The nervous system of a living organism is made up of cells. A cell may be defined as a unit of living material.

Question 18.
Spinal Cord.
Answer:
A spinal cord is a continuation of the brain below the medulla. It is structured compared to the brain.

Question 19.
Mid Brain.
Answer:
The midbrain is the topmost part of the brain stem and also its shortest part. It only directs sensory input to the midbrain.

Question 20.
Reflex Arc.
Answer:
The structure through which reflex action takes place is called the reflex arc. It involves the sensory nerve, the spinal cord, and the motor nerve.

Question 21.
Parietal lobe.
Answer:
The parietal lobe lies near the central fissure in the back half of the brain. The parietal lobe is the seat of sensation.

Question 22.
Synapse.
Answer:
The junction of two neurons is called a synapse. The neurons interact only at synapses. Dendrites and axons for different reasons are gaps that are technically called synapses. If the stimulus is of high intensity the synapse restricts the flow and vice versa. Synapses, blow down or inherit.

Question 23.
Spinal Cord.
Answer:
The spinal cord is a continuation of the brain below the medulla. It has a simple structure compared to the brain. The different parts of the spinal cord are connected to the brain. The spinal cord has a rich acroterial blood supply. These nerve clusters grow up the first step towards the evolution of the spinal cord.

Question 24.
Hypothalamus.
Answer:
The hypothalamus is a small structure directly below the thalamus and is connected with it. It lies at the base of the cerebrum. It is closely connected with ANS. It controls body metabolism, hunger, thirst, and sexual activity. The function of the hypothalamus in emotional behavior is very significant.

Question 25.
Reticular Activating System.
Answer:
The reticular activating system is situated within the hindbrain and extends into the midbrain and hypothalamus. There is grey matter interplaced with crisscrossing groups of axons and cell bodies it is called ‘reticular’. The cerebral cortex and RAX influence each other’s functions, particularly in the sleep and arousal process. RAS has a lot of importance for the normal behavior of man. RAS is less activated during sleep.

Question 26.
Sympathetic system.
Answer:
A sympathetic system called “The Thora Cicolumbar System”. The sympathetic nervous system consists of 22 sympathetic ganglia in a man, arranged along the spinal cord. The sympathetic system put itself into action to meet this emergency situation. The sympathetic system consists of the visceral blood vessels and directs them to muscles and the brain increasing it. This sympathetic outflow it takes place through the thoracic and lumber regions of the spinal cord.

Question 27.
Neuron.
Answer:
The entire nervous system is compared to only two kinds of cells. Glia cells and nerve each or neurons. Glia cells provide a mechanical framework, supporting the networks of neurons. The neurons are the most active but smallest units of the whole nervous system. The axon transmits nerve impulses from the body to the effects organs of another neuron. Sensory and motor nerves are made up of neurons.

Question 28.
Functions of Cerebellum.
Answer:
The cerebellum is responsible for maintaining body balance and making fine muscular and motor coordinates in various bodily movements. The dorsal lobe is the most important part of the cerebellum. It helps in motor coordination. Cerebral unions lead to disturbances in the pattern of movements. The cerebellum part of the hindbrain receives stimulation from many different receptions.

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Solutions Unit 4 Process of Thinking Long Answer Questions Part 2.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class Psychology Unit 4 Process of Thinking Long Answer Questions Part-2

Long Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Define meaning, the definition of motivation, and the goals of motivation.
Answer:
All these motivational terms regulate the behavior of a person. When we say one is motivated, we mean to say that he is driven or moved to an act by an inner control urge or force as in the case of the writer just discussed. In any action, except a simple reflex, the ‘O’ is guided by certain underlying internal conditions.

They direct the ‘O’ toward specific goals. In the opinion of Bunch (1958) a drive or a motive is a “persistent behavior which appears to be dominated by the time being by a relatively limited group of stimuli acting on the organism.” Motivation is derived from the Latin word “Movere” which means to move.

In the literal sense, it is a process that arouses the energy or drives in the individual to proceed in an activity. The activity aroused, fulfills the need, and reduces the drive or tension. Until it has not fulfilled the need, the drive is not reduced. P.T. Young has defined motivation as the process of arousing an action, sustaining the activity in progress, and regulating the pattern of activity.

Let us take the case of hunger which is a common biological motive. When one is hungry, the need is food. This need creates internal physiological changes in the ‘ O’ which induces a drive. This drive goal or directs the ‘O’ to search for food: When the food is available, the hunger needs is fulfilled and the drive is reduced and the activity ceases then and there.

A motivated act is completed When the goal is reached. Take the case of Thomdike’s eats. Only when the cat is hungry or has the need to escape out ofthe problem box, it tries to open the door. Otherwise, the cat may simply sleep inside the problem box very peacefully. Lashley (1938). He indicated that motivated behavior does not consist simply of chains of stimulus-response sequences.

Conditions within ‘O’ change his response to a particular stimulus at a particular moment. That is why the same person may show different types of responses to the same stimulus on different occasions. Motivation also varies from person to person. Freud, Young, Woodworth, and McDougall, all are of opinion that every action has an underlying cause behind it.

Every learning goal-oriented. Motivation is the superhighway to learning. So Thompson remarked, “All our behaviors are controlled from within the organism by primary motives and the secondary motives are determined by external stimuli.” McDougall and Freud both treated motivation in terms of energy, a conception That has persisted in the psychology of motivation down to the present time.

Freud stated that this energy is derived from a general reservoir of sexual motivation, the libido which is further supplied to all other behavior. McDougall said that all motives are purposive and directed towards a goal. “He led the foundation stone to the idea of motivational energy, the varieties of its expression, and the physiological mechanisms through which it operates.” (Kimbel and Germany 1980).

According to Atkinson (1958), the term motivation refers to the arousal ofthe tendency to act to produce one or more effects. Murphy considered motivation as the general name for the fact that an organism’s act is partly determined by its own nature and internal structure. N.R.F. Maier says that motivation is the process by which the expression of behavior is determined or future expression is influenced by consequences to which such behavior leads.

According to Guilford (1960), all the internal conditions that stir up activity and sustain activity come under motivation. Internal stimulation for motivation is essential while external stimulus may be of secondary importance. Like, if you are hungry, you will definitely search for food. Otherwise, food in the external environment will not motivate you.

Underwood (1968) gives the following operational definition of motivation. The classes of operations used to produce and measure changes in performance and changes in energy output. Maslow held that motivated behavior is need-related and need-based. I Ic also talked about the hierarchy of motives.

Maier defined motivation as a goal-directed activity. Young tried to define motive in a wider sense. He believed that “motivation is the process of arousing the action, sustaining the activity in progress, and regulating the pattern of activity”. New Comb has defined motive as “a state of the ‘O’ in which bodily energy is mobilized and selectively directed towards parts of the environment”.

According to Morgan and King (1975), “Motivation refers to states within a person or animal that drives behavior towards some goal”.
Thus, in the process of motivation, the following stages have involved

• a state that drives behavior or drives
• arousal of behavior by this physiological state, and
• the direction of the behavior toward a specific or selective goal is found. This definition more or less deals with the aspects of the motivational process.

Drive:
Drive is a psychological state, a tateWhjph leads one to activity. This State of the body leads the ‘O’ to a certain specific and selective activity that produces tension. When one is thirsty, if he is given food instead of water, it may not reduce his driving state. His activity is specifically directed towards getting a glass of water for the reduction of thirst drive. Drive is pure energy that is mobilized and made available for activity. Drive is further a consequence of unsatisfied needs. Only art unsatisfied need generates a drive.

Goal Or Incentive:
According to Ruch (1970), “A goal refers to some substance, objects or environmental initiated action. “Skinner and Bugelski have shown symbolic incentives in rats temporarily eliminating the complexity of internal conditions which initiated action, “Briefly, a goal is a reward, an incentive, or a motivation towards which behavior is directed.

The term incentive refers demotivational value of reinforcer. Without an incentive or reinforcer, motivation cannot be fulfilled, the incentive may be positive or negative, like food and electric shock or reward and punishment. It may be material, semi-material or non-material. It may also be verbal, non-verbal, biological, or social.

The incentive may be symbolic also when it does not have direct reinforcing power. Token experiments by Wulfe (1936) and Cowles (1937) have proved this, By achieving the goal through I the incentive satisfaction of the motive takes place. The goal or incentive varies with die nature of the drive. For hunger, food is the goal, for thirst water, sex mate and maternal-drive children, etc. are considered as goals.

A goal may be distant or near. It may be a long-range behavior sequence or a short-range behavior sequence or a short-range behavior sequence. Usually, near goals act as a better motivating factor than distant goals. In any process of motivation, we find this need, drive, and incentive (goal) sequence.

These three are indispensable for the process of motivation to operate and to be completed. Without a need, there cannot be a drive and without a drive, the behavior cannot be goal-oriented. Finally, without a goal or incentive, a motive cannot function successfully. Thus, it is aided by Hull that all learnings are purposive.

Question 2.
Define the meaning and definition of emotion and describe the nature or characteristics of emotion.
Answer:
Emotion:
Meaning, operational definition, and nature of emotion:
The only child of a woman dies in a road accident. She is so disturbed by this, pathetic incident that she sits like a statue for days together, completely motionless. Then one day her dead body is found inside a well. An old man, at last, is ruined by his long-lost son. He just cries and cries, not out of misery but in happiness.

The first incident indicates emotions of sorrow, distress, and unhappiness, and the second one of happiness, joy, and pleasure. Thus, emotions take life interesting as well as distressing pleasant as well as unpleasant, and happy as well as unhappy, sometimes emotions bring distress and disaster in human life, disorganize, and disturb the entire life pattern.

At other times, it rebuilds functions and organizes activities. The emotion of love, happiness, and joy help in uniting and reuniting many friends, relations, couples, and marriage patterns. Without emotions, life would have been dull and colorless, devoid of charm. Emotions are also responsible for the finest human characteristics as well as for the most horrible and mean things in life. Emotion makes life pleasurable as well as miserable.

According, to Ruch (1970), “Emotions play a vital part in our motivational patterns. Life without emotion would be virtually a life without motion. Emotion has also organized and motivational values. When strong emotions arise strong motives are satisfied.” Emotion, a very complex and intricate psychological process has been a matter of discussion by, physiologists and psychologists for the last 100 years or more.

Emotion Defined:
It is quite difficult to give a comprehensive definition of emotion, which is a very complex and intricate psychological process. Different psychologists have defined emotion in several different ways. But the most appropriate definition of emotion so far is given by P.T. Young. According to him, “Emotion is an acute disturbance ofthe organism, as a whole, psychological in origin involving behavior, conscious experience, and visceral functioning.

An analysis of this definition points out four important characteristics of emotion:
Emotion is acute or strong in the body, unlike feelings in which the disturbance is mild. The whole body is strongly disturbed and agitated.
The disturbance due to emotion has always had a psychological origin. That is, a stimulus either external or internal always produces an emotional reaction.

Suppose the person saw a tiger in the forest and became afraid. This very fear is psychological in nature, and it introduces a stirred-up state. Thirdly, the disturbed state produced by an emotional experience creates bodily l changes which are physiological in nature. Physiological changes take place in the entire body system.

Finally, emotion is a conscious experience. The person facing the emotion-provoking situation must perceive it as significant. Then only emotion can be produced. The individual must be aware that the situation is such and such, that it is dangerous for him and hence should be avoided, and so on.

Nature And Characteristics of emotion:
The term emotion has been derived from the Latin word E-mover, which means to move to stir up, to agitate, to excite, and to arouse oneself. This arousal of self creates an art urge towards action. It is a very complex, disturbed state of the organism. That is why emotion has been defined as a stirred-up state of the organism.

The entire organism is disturbed both physiologically and psychologically, activated, and excited. Titchener defined emotion as an affected state of the organism. By affective state, he meant to say joy, sorrow, love, hatred, etc. Emotion has got both integrating and disintegrating roles in life.

According to Carr (1925) emotion is a form of energy mobilization. On a Scale of one end, there is a strong emotion and at the other end, no emotion or sleep will be there. This mobilization of energy helps the individual overcome an obstacle at the time of emergency situation like fear or anger.

The person sees a shake, immediately he is activated by tonnes of energy to run away from that place. Emotion is very brief. It starts very abruptly and ends soon after the incident is over Since emotion involves physiological changes, it disappears after the emotional outburst is over. Emotion deals with both physiological and psychological changes, both Objective and subjective aspects.

It has got feeling or covert aspects as well as overt or behavioral aspects. Some psychologists like McDougall have considered emotions as instincts. But this is only a historical and Controversial issue. Emotions occur as a reaction to some basic biological drives. When the basic needs are not satisfied, the person is frustrated.

For example, fear is associated with danger. Similarly, joy is felt when a long-cherished need is satisfied. Certain emotional experiences also help in the satisfaction of some biological needs. During anger, we are able to make use Of more energy in fighting the obstructing situation. Thus, emotions have biological values. Strong emotions help the individual tO be less sensitive to pain.

Question 3.
Discuss the common emotional patterns and describe the cause of fear. Prevention and Elimination.
Answer:
Common Emotional Patterns:
Fear:
As Bridges (1932) says, at first fear is generated more like a state of panic, and excitement than of any specific form. Gradually with the development of language, fear increases and is expressed in many other linguistic expressions than by crying alone. Fear appears clearly at the age of six months.

It is supposed to be a very early emotion and in most cases very dangerous for normal personality development. The arousal of fear depends upon different situations. Loss of support, the sudden approach of anything, or loud noise lead to inherent fears. A five-year-old child has a fear of dogs, doctors, machines, etc. death, fainting persons, dead bodies, being left alone, deep water, etc.

All these are not natural but acquired fears. Fear for animals and fire etc. occurs because of conditioning and habit, says Watson, children also may develop certain imaginative fears or symbolic fears like fear for rats, and spiders. Fear for the parents may be expressed in fear for the teacher who resembles a parent.

However, before the age of 5, symbolic fear does not arise. Fear for animals is more found in childhood, but for non-animals, it increases with age such as fear of disease, illness, dentists, and doctors. Boys usually show more fear towards school work and girls towards illness, disease, darkness, and night. The stimulus itself does not create fear, the way it is presented determines a fear, response.

Causes Of Fear:
Suggestion and imitation:
Dreadful stories narrated by the parents or grandparents, particularly at night cause dangerous fear in them. Mother suggests the baby certain feared objects like Ghost, Tiger, and Demon, and sleeps peacefully, while the baby spends the night with horrible experiences and nightmares without being able to sleep.

In a particular case, whenever the mother sees a rat she screams in fear as if she is facing a lion. The child at the early stage had no such fear of rats. But when he saw several times his mother screaming, at the sight of a rat, he also gradually developed this fear of rats. Most of our childhood fears are partly due to imitation and partly due to suggestion.

For Getting Attention:
One shows fear of getting attention also. In order to escape an unpleasant task or experience one develops a fear response.

Poor Training:
Overprotected and sheltered home life prevents emotional maturity. Wien the mother or other family members make it a point to accompany the child whenever he goes, wherever he goes, to protect him, in future he cannot go anywhere alone, let it be the latrine or bathroom. If we say, don’t go in the dark, you will fall down, don’t go alone, somebody will kidnap you. Don’t touch the switch, you will get shocked, don’t go to high places, you will fall down, and the child will be afraid of everything and every place.

Symbolic and Imaginary fears:
Phobias are of this type. To repress fear for one tiling, they show fear for other things, such fear for spiders, a bunch of hair, and small rats, which are mostly symbolic fears. Since these are harmless stimuli, one should not normally show fear of these stimuli. But when these objects stand for some other feared objects because of repression, such fears become unhealthy for normal personality development.

Unpleasant Dreams:
Dreams about ghosts, demons; dangerous animals give rise to various fears.

Prevention and Elimination of Fear:
Jones found two broad techniques for preventing fear.

• social Imitation
• Direct Conditioning

Social Imitation:
Just as fear develops by imitation, it can also be eliminated by imitation. Suppose the child is afraid of a cat. The mother or somebody whom the child loves, respects, and obeys, should bring the cat, hold it, and show the child in a gradual process that the cat is not harmful. Similarly, fear of different domestic animals, dark places, open places, high places, rivers, water, and crowdy places can be removed by imitation. Thus far can be removed by allowing the child to learn from others.

Direct Conditioning:
By associating the feared object with a stimulus that the child wants or desires to get, fear can be eliminated. By associating with a stimulus that the child likes or wants to get, say with a chocolate or ice cream or with the mother or some near and dear one the child’s fear can be eliminated. However, the prevention of fear by the conditioning method cannot be done in a day or two. It is a gradual and slow process, which requires patience, time, and understanding of the child, his current needs, and desires.

Fear can also be prevented by other techniques :
Prevention of useless and needless fear like goats or big fish. Many persons develop an aversion to fish or meat by visualizing the killing of these stimuli. This should be discouraged. The child must not be told or allowed to hear horrible and dreadful stories as they imagine these stories in reality and develop tremendous fears. Stories of ghosts and witches should be avoided completely.

Reconditioning of fear by gradually familiarising the child with the fearful object, say water or any animal. This has been discussed earlier. By having someone with whom he has got confidence. Fear of a dog increases when the child is taken to the dog by a stranger. But when he approaches the dog with his mother or father, the fear gradually subsides.

By introducing counter motives by presenting the feared stimulus with attraction and pleasant ones. Curiosity and heroism should be developed to avoid fear. A sense of curiosity is required to avoid symbolic fear. Security in the family decreases fear response (Jersild and Homes).

Verbal appeal and reassurance combined with practical demonstration reduce fear. By developing good health. Self-expression and self-criticism also reduce fear (Conn). Acquaintance with the environment. According to Slater, Beekwitn, and Behnke fear of the unfamiliar disappears as the child becomes acquainted with his environment.

Question 4.
Define Anger and discuss the causes of treatment and jealousy.
Answer:
Anger:
Anger is said to be a negative emotion like fear. In the beginning, generalized undifferentiated and mass anger response is found. But gradually it is distinguished and differentiated. Anger is a more frequent emotional response in children than fear, as anger-provoking stimuli are more than fear-provoking stimuli in the child’s environment. When the natural desires and motives are not freely satisfied, but obstructed, anger is shown.

Causes of Anger:
The cause of anger is interference or restriction of any type or it may be due to frustration. This frustration may be due to personal, physical, or social causes. Ricketts has pointed out certain other causes of anger like conflict over playthings, conflict over toilet and dressing, interruption of interesting activities like pressurizing the child to leave play and study, etc.

Jones has found that in 3-5 years children’s anger is created over their daily toilet, habits, dressing, going to school, etc. But by and large, the main cause of anger both in children and adults is interference in the fulfillment of wishes and desires.

Treatment or Anger:
Checking or repression of anger is undesirable. Anger should be channelized in socially acceptable Ways rather than being suppressed, repressed, or restricted. In general, anger can be treated by obtaining a clear picture of all factors, removing the irritating factors which annoy the child, substituting a different goal, and redirecting its motives.

Jealousy:
Jealousy is an outgrowth of anger. It is an attitude of resentment directed towards other people only while anger can be directed towards people, self, and others. It is a negative emotion. The arousal of jealousy depends upon training and the treatment that one gets from others. Child-rearing practices have got a lot to do with the development of jealousy.

Clinical studies of jealousy in young children show that it is a common emotional experience, originating with the birth of younger siblings. Children also show jealousy towards parents, especially towards the father when they see him showing affection towards their mother. The characteristic expression of jealousy includes hurting others, reverting to infantile behavior like bed wetting, thumb sucking, and attention-catching.

In older people jealousy is directly expressed in verbal quarrels, gossiping, name-calling, and making sarcastic and taunting jokes. Jealousy is indirectly expressed in daydreams. Girls are found to be more jealous than boys as found by Foster. More Jealousy is found in children of higher intellectual levels.

Question 5.
Define the bodily changes and eternal expressions of emotion.
Answer:
Bodily changes from individual to individual. In spite of these variations, there are some common bodily changes, which can be divided into overt and covert, as external and internal bodily changes.

External Expressions of :
Facial Expression:
The face is the most expressive organ of the human body. It is thus said to be the barometer of emotion. The muscles in the forehead, head, around the eyes, nose, and mouth are used differently with each emotion. Facial expressions vary from emotion to In anger the facial expression is different than when one is happy or afraid or sony. But it is not always easy to judge accurately one’s emotions from these facial expressions, particularly of adults.

Besides, some do not show any definite pattern of facial expression for a particular emotion. Munn states that it is much easier to differentiate facial expressions of pleasant and unpleasant emotions than it is to differentiate expressions of specific emotions, say joy versus love or sorrow versus fear. In a study to relate the different facial expressions of emotion. Schlosberg (1952) obtained certain pictures of the same face posed to express different emotions.

These pictures were given to observe to sort out into one of the following six categories:

• Love, happiness, mirth
• Surprise
• Fear, suffering
• Anger, determination
• Disgust
• Contempt

Schlosberg found a high correlation in the judgments of different observers but found that in several cases pictures posed to express love were confused with those posed to express contempt. Nevertheless, looking at someone’s face we can say whether he is happy, angry, or afraid. The many parts of the face like eyes, nose, lips, cheeks, forehead, etc. reflect the emotional pattern of anger.

In joy, the eyes may shine. In grief, they get dimmed. In anger the face becomes red, and the nostrils may expand or contract, in happiness the bps may smile. The cheeks may be red in anger or when one blushes because of shyness. In fear, the mouth gets dry, the face is full of sweets, the body shakes and the hair stands.

Postural Reaction:
Different emotions arouse different postures. Fear involves flight violent anger involves not flight but aggressive movements, which may either be abusive or involve an actual attack. In grief we bow, we stiffen in anger, and we lean forward when we are anxious and expect something.

In the emotion of love, there is movement in the direction of the beloved. In sorrow, there is a general slumping posture while in joy the opposite is involved, i.e. the head is he Id high and chest out, and there is the movement of hands. Gestures as expressions of bodily changes are to what extent influenced by culture is not known.

The importance of postural reaction in emotional experience has been emphasized by James Lange’s theory. It holds that stimulations produced by assuming different postures contribute to the feeling aspect of emotion. For instance, it holds that if we put our hands on our cheeks and sit lowering our faces, we will feel sorry.

Vocal Expression:
Voice is a powerful organ for indicating different types of emotional experiences. The modulation of voice, change in loudness, and pitch may represent different types of emotion. A loud sound with enough variation in pitch indicates excitement, a rising inflection usually indicates a feeling of surprised doubt, and loud laughter indicates joy and happiness. A slow monotonous voice expresses defeat and dejection.

A higher pitch indicates anger. In anger the increase in body tension leads to more tension in the vocal cords which leads to a rise in voice, similarly, in fear there is suffering. Though the high pitch associated with anger is inborn these vocal expressions in most cases are also colored by cultural training. The word can be uttered differently to express different emotions. Say “COME” C…O…M…E‘come’.

Therefore from the verbal expression of a person, his emotional state can be easily detected in addition to his facial expression, postural and other reactions. Merry by recording the speaking and singing voices of actors and singers has shown how different emotions are expressed through them. In addition to these bodily expressions of emotion Ruch(1970) has stated four other emotional behavior patterns.

Destruction:
Destruction is found mostly in anger reactions. In anger, the most typical physical reaction is overt aggression or attack. The type of attack varies from culture to culture. In the case of uncivilized people, the attack is more of biting, hitting, shooting, and piercing with a knife. In the case of civilized people, the attack is more symbolic. This implies that in place of physical injury attack is made through language, i.e., sarcastic remarks, taunting words, abuses, etc.

Approach:
In happiness, joy, delight, pleasure, and love, the response made by the experiencing person can be said to be one of the approaches. The approach leads to further stimulation. Success in life produces elation. This is also an approach reaction. Even anticipation of success brings some pleasant emotion and ultimately an approach response.

Retreat or Flight:
The emotion erf fear, the typical bodily response observed universally is the flight from the emotion-provoking stimulus or retreat. By withdrawing from the fearful or dangerous situation the person saves himself. Flight is said to be the best medium of adjustment in dangerous situations.

In civilized people, the retreat may also be through symbols and withdrawal reactions like daydreaming. Ruch remarks “In civilized life, however, we often retreat symbolically through words, apologies, compromises, discussions, and various psychological mechanisms of withdrawal”.

Stopping of Response:
In sorrow, gloom, and depression, there is no destruction, no approach, no flight, but by and large a stop of unusual response. The person in such emotional experiences never shows any behavior. Even a strong stimulus does not bring any response in him.

Question 6.
Discuss bodily or organic Or physiological changes in emotion.
Answer:
Bodily changes mean physiological changes. Because of the excessive activation of different organs during emotional states, physiological changes occur.
They are discussed below:

• External expressions of emotion.
• Physiological changes.
• Glandular responses
• The Galvanic skin responses
• Pupillometrics
• Gastro-Intestinal functions

External Expressions of Emotion:
Facial expression:
The face is the most expressive organ of the human body.

Postural Reaction:
Different emotions arouse different postures, fear involves a flight. Violent anger involves not flight but aggressive movements.

Vocal Expression:
Voice is a powerful organ for indicating different types of emotional experiences.

Physiological Changes:
In our day-to-day experience of emotion, we find the body undergoing various physiological changes like the rate of breathing increases, the rise of heart palpitation, sinking feeling in the stomach, general feeling of weakness, sweating, trembling, rise in blood pressure, and similar physiological changes.

The symptoms of fear reported by thousands of soldiers during the second world war are given below:

A large number of researches have been undertaken to objectively measure the physiological concomitants of emotion to discover how the different physiological processes change during emotion and whether there are different patterns of physiological change underlying specific emotions like fear, rage, and disgust.

In such studies changes in blood pressure, heart-best, and respiration are recorded during emotional states by different instruments. The activity of the heart during an emotional state is studied by examining the shape of the curve recorded by an electrocardiograph.

Glandular Responses:
Glands play an important role during different emotional states. In anger, the module of the adrenal gland secrets excessive amount of adrenaline and non-adrenaline and pours them into the bloodstream. Adrenaline is responsible for many characteristics of strong emotional experiences. The level of sugar in the blood rises because of excessive secretion of this hormone.

This increases heartbeat, and blood pressure increases due to the release of glycogen from the lever. The pulse rate also rises. Blood clots more quickly, more air enters the lungs, pupils enlarge and the body sweats profusely. The skin temperature also rises. Non-adrenaline constricts the blood vessels at the surface of the body as a result of which more blood is sent to other parts of the body.

Evidence also indicates the role of the thyroid and pituitary gland in emotional response. Research shows that adrenaline by itself may not necessarily arouse emotional experience or behavior. In a study done jointly by Cantril and Hunt (1932), 22 normal subjects were injected with adrenaline, 3 out of 22 reported unpleasant experiences, one pleasant experience, and ten no emotional experience, and the rest had different kinds of emotions.

Though subjects injected with adrenaline report that they feel as if they are going to have an emotional experience, they do not experience it. This suggests that in addition to adrenaline, probably emotion-provoking situations arid-related postural activities are necessary to produce emotional states.

The Galvanic Skin Response:
The galvanic skin response is measured with an apparatus called a psycho-galvanometer. It measures the electrical resistance in the skin; technically called electrodermal changes. These changes result from the activity of the sweat glands. The galvanic skin response associated with blood pressure and respiration is a highly sensitive objective indication that an emotional experience is taking place.

In addition to its presence in manual and mental work, its presence is evident in upsetting emotional conditions. According to Munn (1953), changes in the galvanometer following emotional stimulations are due to the lowering of electrical resistance between the two electrodes on the skin. Munn further adds that the GSR may be studied in terms of its latency, its amplitude, its duration, and some derivative of such indices.

Pupillometrics:
Pupillometry is a novel technique for measuring physiological changes during emotional studies. The pupil of the eye during emotional states dilates in response to stimuli that arouse a favorable reaction and contracts in response to unpalatable and disliked stimuli. Thus pupillometry is based on Darwin’s view of the eyes widening and narrowing during emotion.

In 1960, Eckhard Hess rediscovered this fact in an incidental observation. Hess made further laboratory study on this and found the size of the pupil changes with die favorable or unfavorable nature of the stimulus, which may be taste, sound, or sight. It is assumed that pupillometrices are of immense value in psychotherapy as a diagnostic tool, in particular.

By looking at pictures loaded with emotional complexes the patient can without his knowledge hint at the stresses in his personality. Precisely, the reactions of his eyes will reveal this. Pupillometrics can also be used in lie detection, as pupil contracts only to unpleasant stimuli.

Gastro-Intestinal Functions:
There is also a change in gastrointestinal functions during emotional behavior. Gastro¬intestinal functions are usually measured with the help of balloons inserted into the stomach or intestines. By observing the stomach directly gastric functions can also be measured. Munn (1953) has given an example of this connection.

The patient suddenly experienced fear one morning amid a phase of accelerated gastric function. An errata doctor entered the room muttering imprecations about an important protocol that had been lost. The patient had misled it and feared that he had lost the record and his job. He lay motionless on the table and his face became pale.

Prompt and decided pallor occurred also in his gastric mucosa, and associated with it there occurred a fall in the rate of acid production. A minute later the doctor found his paper and left the room. Forthwith the face and the gastric mucosa of the patient regained their former color”.

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Question 7.
What is the motive? Describe biological motive.
Answer:
Motivational terms like line desire, wish aim, drive, purpose, goal-oriented activity, urge, incentive and so on which go to mean motive. All these motivational terms regulate the behavior of a person. Motivation is derived from the Latin word “movere” which means to move.

Types of motive:
Motivation has been classified by psychologists into some categories. These are:

• Biological motives
• Social motives
• Psychological motives

We discussed the
Biological Motives:
The biological motives are rooted in the physiological state of the body, hunger, thirst, sex is the most obvious biological or physiological motives. They are physiological because they are associated directly with physiological systems. Other physiological motives include temperature regulation, sleep, pain avoidance, and a need for oxygen.

Hunger:
Earlier Experimental literature on hunger reveals that the source of hunger drive is stomach contractions. The experiments were simple. The observers used subjects who were trained to swallow small balloons with rubber tubes attached. The balloons were inflated in the stomach and the rubber tubes were connected to kymographs recording mechanisms.

Here each spasm of the stomach muscles could cause a mark on the smoked drum. On different occasions, the subjects were also asked to press the key when they felt hunger pangs. As a result, a mark was made on the drum just below the record of stomach activities. Further, the abnormal breathing of subjects was also recorded.

The investigator, here, could decide very well whether the spasms represented in the record were due to the stomach or abdominal movements. It was observed that the hunger pangs coincided with stomach contractions, but these pangs were not related to movements of the abdominal muscles. But the recent works on hunger reveal a different story.

The conclusions depict that the relationship between stomach contractions and hunger is weak. A joint venture of both psychologists and physiologists tried to find out some other conditions of the body which trigger hunger. Recent research also has shown that people report normal feelings of hunger even when the nerves from the stomach have been cut or the stomach has been entirely removed.

Physiologists believe that changes in the metabolic functions of the liver when fuel supplies are low provide the body’s stimulus for hunger. The liver can give a signal to the hypothalamus that more fuel is needed which triggers the hunger drive. Further experiments on the functions of the hypothalamus revealed that two regions of the hypothalamus are involved in the hunger drive-lateral hypothalamus and ventromedial area.

The lateral hypothalamus is the excitatory area. Animals eat when this area is stimulated. When this area is damaged, animals stop eating and die of starvation. On the other hand, the ventromedial area is located in the middle of the hypothalamus, which is otherwise known as the ‘ hunger-controlling area’. Experts consider this area as the inhibited region of the hunger drive.

Studies revealed that when this ventromedial area is dangered, animals develop voracious appetites. They went to take a huge amount of food and they also overeat. Experimental literature also reveals that cessation of eating or satiety is controlled by a hormone called Cholecystokinin (cck), which is released into the bloodstream when food reaches the intestine (Gibbs Smith, 1973).

Injections of cck into food-deprived rats who are eating causes them to stop eating and start grooming and other behaviors which are part of satiety in animals (Smith & Gibbs, 1976). But the role of ‘cck’ as a satiety hormone has been questioned. Both the hypothalamus and blood chemistry are, no doubt, responsible for hunger.

Thirst:
Thirst serves as a strong drive mechanism in both animals and humans. Humans can live for weeks without eating, but they can not live only for a few days without replenishing their supply of fluid. When human beings experience fluid deprivation, their mouths and throats become dry, cooling them to drink.

Previously it was believed that drinking is triggered by a dry mouth. But physiologists revealed that dry mouth does not result in enough drinking to regulate the water balance of the body. Thirst and drinking are controlled by processes within the body itself. Since maintaining the water level is essential for life itself.

The body has a set of complicated internal homeostatic processes to regulate its fluid level and drinking behavior. Our body’s water level is maintained by physiological events in which several hormones play a vital role. One of these hormones is the antidiuretic hormone (ADII). It regulates the loss of water through the kidneys.

Experts feel that thirst drive and drinking of water are mainly triggered by two mechanisms. The first one is that when the water level of the body goes down, certain neurons located within the hypothalamus begin to give out water. The thirst which results from this mechanism is known as “cellular dehydration thirst.”

Some experimental results also revealed that the loss of water from the cells in a particular region of the hypothalamus might initiate the drinking behavior. The experiments view that the neurons in the preoptic regions of the hypothalamus (Known as osmoreceptors) are responsible for controlling the drinking behavior of the organism.

Thirst triggered by the loss of water from the osmoreceptors is called “cellular-dehydration thirst”. The second mechanism which is responsible for triggering drinking behavior is known as t ‘hypovolemia’ or the condition of low blood plasma volume. Loss of water in the body results in hypovolemia or a decrease in the volume of the blood.

When blood volume goes down, so does blood pressure. The drop in blood pressure stimulates the kidney to release an enzyme called ‘renin’. This enzyme is involved in the formation of a substance known as ‘angiotensin’ which circulates the blood and may trigger drinking.

Sex Drive:
Partially sexual behavior depends on physiological conditions. So it may be considered a biological motive. But sexual motivation is far more than a biological drive. Sexual motivation is social because it involves other people and provides the basis for social grouping in higher animals.

Sexual behavior is powerfully regulated by social pressures and religious beliefs. Sex is psychological because it is an important part of our emotional lives. It can provide intense pleasure, but it can also give us agony and involve us in many difficult decisions. Till now, physiologists are trying to find out the exact location of the internal control of the sexual drive.

No doubt, the intensity of sexual urges is dependent upon chemical substances circulating in the blood known as sex hormones. Studies confirmed that this urge is profoundly influenced by the presence of hormones produced by tests in males and ovary cases of human beings, socio-cultural and emotional factors seem to play pivotal roles.

Sleep:
Sleep is a basic necessity of life. About one-third of our life is spent sleeping. It is a dramatic alteration of consciousness and it also happens spontaneously. The ordinary fluctuations in consciousness are part of the rhythmic. All creatures in this world are influenced by nature’s rhythms.

Human beings are at least a time cycle known as circadian rhythms. These rhythms are bodily patterns that repeat approximately every 24 hours. About one-third of the circadian rhythm is devoted to the period of energy-restoring rest called sleep. The most significant discovery after EEG technology in sleep research was that of rapid eye movement (REM).

These are the bursts of quick eye movements under closed eyelids, occurring at periodic intervals during sleep. The time when a sleeper is not showing REM is known as non-REM or NREM sleep (NREM). Dreams are possible during REM sleep. But NREM reports were filled with brief descriptions of ordinary daily activities, similar to waking thoughts.

Research evidence indicated that over the course of the night, our sleep cycle crosses several stages, each of which shows a distinct EEG pattern. It takes about 90 minutes to progress through the first four stages of sleep (NREM sleep). The first period of REM sleep last for about 10 minutes. In a night’s sleep, an individual passes through this 100-minute cycle four.

Question 8.
What are social motives?
Answer:
Social motives are otherwise known as secondary motives. These are also known as acquired learned motives. These motives are complex in nature. Social motives are called secondary because they involve interaction with others and are learned due to social conditioning in a social context.

Need for affiliation:
Seeking other human beings and waiting to be close to them both physically and psychologically is called affiliation. It refers to keeping contact with other people, in other words, affiliation refers to the need that people have to be with others. This motive is aroused when individuals feel helpless or threatened and also when they are happy.

Research findings indicate that fear and anxiety are closely related to affiliation motives. Where the degree of anxiety and threat is very high, such affiliation behavior is often absent. Studies also revealed that early learning experiences influence this motive. The first-born or the only child in the family had stronger affiliation motives than those bom later.

Studies have also shown that children who are brought up to be dependent or raised with closed family ties show a stronger affiliation motive than those coming from more closely-knit families which encourages early independence. Cultural differences were also found. Affiliation needs are stronger in some cultures than in others.

Need for Power:
The need for power is an independent motive. It expresses itself in behaviors, which tend to control and influence the course of events including the behaviors of others. History reveals that mankind has always struggled for power. Power was desired by the individuals as an instrument to satisfy other motives like aggression, greed, affiliation, etc. But in recent years, emphasis has been placed on the power motive as independent in itself. This view was emphasized by McClelland.

In his theory, David Me Clelland (1975) has expressed that power motivation can be revealed in four general ways:

People do things to gain feelings of power and strength from sources outside themselves. For example, children express power motivation by reading stories. Individuals gain strength fry reading the activities of past leaders. People do things to gain feelings of power and strength from sources within themselves.

For example, a college student may express power motivation by building up the body and by mastering urges and impulses. People do things to have an impact on others. For example, an individual may argue with another individual or may have a competitive attitude in order to influence that person. People do things as members of organizations to have an impact on others.

For example, the leader of a political party may use the principles of his party or an army officer may express the need for power through the chain of command to influence others. Studies reveal that for any individual, one of these ways of expressing power motivation may dominate. But a combination of power motives can not be ruled out.

With age and life experiences, the dominant mode of expression often changes. Studies have also shown that women seem to have less strong needs for power than men. They choose indirect ways to impact and influence. For example, women prefer to express their power motivation by being counselors, advisors, and resource persons for other people.

Depending on motive:
Shortly speaking dependency refers to interpersonal relationships where an individual behaves in a way in order to gain attention, assistance, comfort, and support from fellow men. For example, children use to spend more time with parents or intimate friends in difficult situations. People appear to be more dependent on social interactions and approval. Studies reveal that girls and women tend to be more dependent and affiliative than boys. In stress, people want to resort to dependency.

Co-operation motive:
Co-operation is an acquired motive. Moreover, it is a condition manifested when two or more individuals or groups work together to achieve a common goal. It signifies a lack of mutual disagreement and opposition among fellow group members and the absence of rivalry. Research evidence indicates that the citizens of Zuni of New Mexico are found to be extremely cooperative.

Being wealthy in Zuni brings no status. Status is derived not from power, but from friendship. A happy and successful Zuni has many friends. Different studies on altruism among children provide evidence that helping behavior can be fostered through the use of models (Paulson, 1974).

Conformity motive:
Conformity refers to the tendency to allow one’s opinions, attitudes, actions, and even perceptions to be affected by prevailing opinions, attitudes, actions, and perceptions. Very often people act in ways consistent with the majority. This tendency to ‘go along with the group is popularly known as behavioral conformity.

Changes in attitude and belief also take place due to pressures from others. It is known as ‘ attitudinal conformity’. There is also conformity of personality traits i.e. underlying characteristics of a person changes according to the norms of society. With the help of a conformity curve, F.H. Allport (1935) described the conformity motive phenomena.

He related that most people exhibit complete conformity to social norms with fewer and fewer people having deviations. Our submissiveness to social influences is due to conformity motives to the norms of the society in which we live. Norms refer to behavior that is usual or expected, acceptable, and socially prescribed.

Points to remember:

Question 1.
Define the meaning and definition of thinking.
Answer:
Thinking is a very often used psychological term in our daily life. The importance of thinking is evident not only for the wide use of the term but also because thinking helps in the solution of all our day-to-day problems. Thinking is the most complex of all psychological processes and it is thinking that normally differentiates man from lower animals.

Question 2.
Define the sensory-motor period.
Answer:
Sensory-Motor Period.
The sensory-motor period is the period that starts before the language development of the child. Piaget distinguished between two major stages in cognitive development i.e. sensory-motor intelligence (0-2 years) and conceptual intelligence (0-to Maturity). During the sensory-motor period, the child’s adaptations and activities do not involve extensive use of symbols or language.

Question 3.
Describe the stages of cognitive development by Piaget.
Answer:
Piaget is a development theorist who believes that cognitive development occurs gradually phase by phase.
Piaget has divided the entire period of cognitive development into four basic stages.

• A sensorimotor period is 0-2 years approximately.
• Preoperalionalperiod 2-7years approximately.
• The concrete operational period is 7-12 years approximately.
• The formal operational period is 12 years above approximately.

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Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Solutions Unit 5 Colonial Cities Objective Questions.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class History Unit 5 Colonial Cities Objective Questions

Multiple Choice Questions with Answers

Question 1.
During which time the pre-colonial town did grow?
(a) Mughal
(b) Maratha
(c) English
(d) French
Answer:
(a) Mughal

Question 2.
Which among the following is a pre-colonial city?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Madras
(c) Bombay
(d) Lahore
Answer:
(d) Lahore

Question 3.
Which town of the South was famous for trade and commerce during the Medieval period?
(a) Walter
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Madurai
(d) Bangalore
Answer:
(c) Madurai

Question 4.
Where did the Portuguese establish their colony in India?
(a) Panaji
(b) Madras
(c) Pondicherry
(d) Musulipattanam
Answer:
(a) Panaji

Question 5.
Where did the French establish their colony in India?
(a) Madras
(b) Panaji
(c) Pondicherry
(d) Musulipattanam
Answer:
(c) Pondicherry

Question 6.
Where the Dutch settle in India?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Madras
(c) Pondicherry
(d) Musulipattanam.
Answer:
(d) Musulipattan

Question 7.
In which city the British established their first colony in India?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Madras
(c) Bombay
(d) Pondicherry
Answer:
(b) Madras

Question 8.
In which year railway was introduced in India?
(a) 1825
(b) 1850
(c) 1852
(d) 1853
Answer:
(d) 1853

Question 9.
At the time of the census starting who was the Viceroy of India?
(a) Lord Ripon
(b) Lord Curzon
(c) Lord Bentik
(d) Lord Canning
Answer:
(a) Lord Ripon

Question 10.
From which year census in India for ten years began?
(a) 1870
(b) 1853
(c) 1857
(d) 1881
Answer:
(d) 1881

Question 11.
What was the name of the fort built by the British at Calcutta?
(a) Fort George
(b) Fort William
(c) Fort St.George
(d) Fort Panjim
Answer:
(b) Fort William

Question 12.
Where Fort George was situated?
(a) Madras
(b) Calcutta
(c) Bombay
(d) Pondicherry
Answer:
(a) Madras

Question 13.
Name of the fort built by the British at Bombay?
(a) Fort William
(b) Fort Augustine
(c) Fort Panjim
(d) Fort George
Answer:
(d) Fort George

Question 14.
Name of the European settlement during the British period around the fort?
(a) George Town
(b) White Town
(c) Fort Town
(d) Black Town
Answer:
(b) White Town

Question 15.
For what factory, Calcutta was famous?
(a) cotton
(b) Leather
(c) Jute
(d) Iron
Answer:
(c) Jute

Question 16.
At first, where did the British establish Hill Station?
(a) Simia
(b) Mount Abu
(c) Kulu-Manali
(d) Darjeeling
Answer:
(a) Simia

Question 17.
In which year Simia Hill Station was established?
(a) 1816
(b) 1818
(c) 1835
(d) 1876
Answer:
(b) 1818

Question 18.
In which place of Sikkim, the British could establish a hill station?
(a) DarjeeLmg
(b) Sikkim
(c) Simia
(d) Manati
Answer:
(a) Darjeeling

Question 19.
Which British Governor-general built buildings for Government offices and his own residence at Calcutta?
(a) Lord Willim Bentïck
(b) Lord Clive
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) Lord Hastings
Answer:
(c) Lord Wellesley

Question 20.
Where Victoria Memorial Hall situated in India?
(a) Madras
(b) Pune
(c) Delhi
(d) Calcutta
Answer:
(d) Calcutta

Question 21.
Victorial Memorial was established during which Viceroy time?
(a) LordRippon
(b) Lord Curzon
(c) Lord Canning
(d) Lord Willim Bentick
Answer:
(b) Lord Curzon

Question 22.
Where is St. Paul Cathedral Located?
(a) Bombay
(b) Madras
(c) Calcutta
(d) Goa
Answer:
(c) Calcutta

Question 23.
Which architecture of Bombay is built in the style of Big Ben of London?
(a) Writers Building
(b) Rajabai Tower
(c) Victorial Terminus
(d) Fort William
Answer:
(b) Rajabai Tower

Question 24.
In the Latin language which city is regarded as the ‘most famous city’ of India?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Madras
(c) Bombay
(d) Lahore
Answer:
(c) Bombay

Question 25.
Which architecture was built in order to welcome King George and Queen Mary?
(a) Mount Mary Church
(b) Fort St. George
(c) Gateway of India
(d) Victorial Terminus
Answer:
(c) Gateway of India

Question 26.
By whose direction, victoria was built?
(a) George Wettete
(b) F.W. Stevens
(c) William Forbes
(d) George Gilbert
Answer:
(b) F.W Stevens

Question 27.
Which building of Madras (Chennai) is a fine example of the neoclassical style of colonial architecture?
(a) Rippon building
(b) Thomas Mount Church
(c) Madras High Court
(d) Fort St. George
Answer:
(a) Rippon building

Question 28.
As per the letter of Queen Victoria which High Court of India was built?
(a) Bombay High Court
(b) Calcutta High Court
(c) Madras High Court
(d) Delhi High Court
Answer:
(c) Madras High Court

Question 29.
Who had told – ‘Odia is not an independent language’.
(a) R.L. Mitra
(b) R.C. Majumdar
(c) Kanti Chandra Bhattacharya
(d) Gouri Shankar Ray
Answer:
(c) Kanti Chandra Bhattacharya

Question 30.
In which year Ravenshaw College was established?
(a) 1803
(b) 1806
(c) 1867
(d) 1868
Answer:
(d) 1868

Question 31.
Who had established the printing press at Cuttack?
(a) Bichitrananda Das
(b) Gouri Shankar- Ray
(c) Fakir Mohan
(d) Gangadhar Meher
Answer:
(a) Bichitrananda Das

Question 32.
In which year printing press was established at Cuttack in Odisha?
(a) 1829
(b) 1866
(c) 1869
(d) 1876
Answer:
(b) 1866

Question 33.
Magazine ‘Utkal Dipika’ was published by the editorship of whom?
(a) Fakir Mohan
(b) Gangadhan Meher
(c) Bichitrananda Das
(d) Gouri Shankar Ray
Answer:
(d) Gouri Shankar Ray

Question 34.
Who introduced the Hindi language in Sambalpur?
(a) Lord Curzon
(b) Andrew Frezan
(c) Major Impey
(d) Dr. Hansan
Answer:
(b) Andrew Frezan

Question 35.
By whom ‘Sambalpur Hitaisini’ was edited?
(a) Brajamohan Pattnaik
(b) Gangadhar Meher
(c) Dharanidhar Mishra
(d) Nilamani Bidyaratna
Answer:
(d) Nilamani Bidyaratna

Question 36.
Who influenced Lord Curzon to visit Odisha?
(a) Gopabandhu Das
(b) Krushna Chandra Narayan Deo
(c) Madhusudan Das
(d) Gouri Shankar Ray
Answer:
(c) Madhusudan Das

Question 37.
Under whose leadership ‘Utkal Hitabadini Sabha’ was formed at Berhampur?
(a) Curzon
(b) Dr. Hansan
(c) Wiliam Mohanty
(d) Malati Devi
Answer:
(c) Wiliam Mohanty

Question 38.
In which year Rishley circular was published?
(a) 1902
(b) 1903
(c) 1904
(d) 1905
Answer:
(b) 1903

Question 39.
In which year Sambalpur detached from the central province and became a part of the Odisha Division?
(a) 1903
(b) 1904
(c) 1905
(d) 1906
Answer:
(c) 1905

Question 40.
In which year Utkal Union conference was formed?
(a) 1890
(b) 1899
(c) 1905
(d) 1903
Answer:
(d) 1903

Question 41.
Bihar Odisha province was created in
(a) 1910
(b) 1911
(c) 1912
(d) 1916
Answer:
(d) 1913

Question 42.
In which year the separate province was formed?
(a) 1932
(b) 1934
(c) 1935
(d) 1936
Answer:
(d) 1936

Question 43.
Who went from Odisha to raise the question of the formation of Odisha as a separate province in the first Round table Conference held at London in 1930?
(a) Baikunthanath Dey
(b) Krushna Chandra Narayan Deo
(c) Sri Ram Chandra Bhaja Deo
(d) Birakishore Dev
Answer:
(b) Krushna Chandra Narayan Deo

Question 44.
Which committee gave the final report to make Cuttack the capital of Odisha?
(a) Hubback Committee
(b) Philip-Duff Committee
(c) O’Donnell Committee
(d) Joint Parliamentary Committee
Answer:
(a) Hubback Committee

Question 45.
Who was the First Prime Minister of Odisha?
(a) Baikunthanath Dey
(b) Sri Ram Chandra Bhanja Deo
(c) Krusha Chandra Narayan
(d) Birakishore Dev
Answer:
(b) Sri Ram Chandra Bhanja Deo

Question 46.
Who was the first Governor of Odisha?
(a) Ravenshaw Saheb
(b) Barlo
(c) Austin Hubback
(d) Hansan
Answer:
(c) Austin Hubback

Question 47.
In which village was Madhu Babu born?
(a) kheras
(b) Salepur
(c) Padmapur
(d) Satyabhamapur
Answer:
(d) Satyabhamapur

Question 48.
In which year ‘Utkal Sabha’ was formed?
(a) 1878
(b) 1880
(c) 1885
(d) 1904
Answer:
(a) 1878

Question 49.
When the Utkal Union Conference (Utkal Sammilani) was formed?
(a) 1866
(b) 1885
(c) 1888
(d) 1903
Answer:
(d) 1903

Question 50.
Who had established the Utkal Tannery?
(a) Madhu Babu
(b) Gopabandhu Das
(c) Rama Devi
(d) Malati Devi
Answer:
(a) Madhu Babu

Question 51.
When was the ‘Odisha Tennery Bill’ introduced in Bihar-Odisha Legislative Council?
(a) 1900
(b) 1911
(c) 1912
(d) 1913
Answer:
(d) 1913

Question 52.
Who is known as the ‘Gem of Utkal’ (Utkal Mani)?
(a) Madhu babu
(b) Gopabandhu
(c) Krushna Chandra Dev
(d) Gouri Shankar
Answer:
(b) Gopabandhu

Question 53.
Who has established the Open Air Middle English School at Satyabadi?
(a) Madhu Babu
(b) Fakir Mohan
(c) Gopabndhu
(d) Rama Devi
Answer:
(c) Gopabndhu

Question 54.
Who was the founder of the newspaper ‘Samaj’?
(a) Gopabandhu Das
(b) Acharya Harihar
(c) Malati Devi
(d) Madhusiidan Das
Answer:
(a) Gopabandhu Das

Question 55.
who was the first President of the Utkal Pradesli Committee?
(a) Acharya Harihar
(b) Krupasindhu Mishra
(c) Gopabandhu Das
(d) Dr. Ekram Rasool
Answer:
(c) Gopabandhu Das

Question 56.
Who composed ‘Bandira Atmakatha’ (Poems of the Prison)?
(a) Radhanath Roy
(b) Madhusudan Das
(c) Gopabandhu Das
(d) Malati Devi
Answer:
(c) Gopabandhu Das

Question 57.
In which year the session of the Utkal Union Conference was held at Paralakhemundi?
(a) 1902
(b) 1903
(c) 1912
(d) 1914
Answer:
(d) 1914

Question 58.
The Bidyadharpur Rice Research Institute was introduced by whose effort?
(a) Gopabandhu
(b) Madhu Babu
(c) Krushna Chandra Gajapati
(d) Malati Devi
Answer:
(c) Krushna Chandra Gajapati

Question 59.
From Odisha who participated in the first Round Table Conference at London?
(a) Madhu Babu
(b) Krushna Chandra Gajpati
(c) Gopabandhu Das
(d) Rama Devi
Answer:
(b) Krushna Chandra Gajpati

Question 60.
Who was given the title ‘Meherbani-i-Dostan’?
(a) Krushna Chandra Gajpati
(b) Madhu Babu
(c) Fakir Mohan
(d) Gangadhar Meher
Answer:
(a) Krushna Chandra Gajpati

Question 61.
Who was the husband of Rama Devi?
(a) Gopabandhu Das
(b) Gopabandhu Choudhury
(c) Manmohan Chaudhury
(d) Bhagirathi Mohapatra
Answer:
(b) Gopabandhu Choudhury

Question 62.
In which Ashram of Jagatsinghpur did Rama Devi stay?
(a) Sevaghar
(b) Alakashram
(c) Anakhia Ashram
(d) Delanga Ashram
Answer:
(b) Alakashram

Question 63.
What is the name of the Ashram where Rama Devi stayed at Bari?
(a) Kujibar Ashram
(b) Alakashram
(c) Sebaghar
(d) Anakhia Ashram
Answer:
(c) Sebaghar

Question 64.
Name of the woman of Odisha who gets an award from Jamunalal Baj aj foundation?
(a) Rama Devi
(b) Malati Devi
(c) Sarala Devi
(d) Kokila Devi
Answer:
(a) Rama Devi

Question 65.
While reading at Banki School, Sarala Devi was inspired by her love for the motherland.
(a) Laxmi Bai
(b) Suka Dei
(c) Ahalya Bai
(d) Durga Vati
Answer:
(b) Suka Dei

Question 66.
What was the name of the husband of Sarala Devi?
(a) Bhagirathi Mohapatra
(b) Naba Krushna Choudhury
(c) Gopabandhu Das
(d) Gopabandhu Choudhury
Answer:
(a) Bhagirathi Mohapatra

Question 67.
What was the name of the center which was opened by the efforts of Sarala Devi to train Satyagrahis?
(a) Karma Mandir
(b) Udyog Mandir
(c) Jana Mandir
(d) Swaraj Mandir
Answer:
(b) Udyog Mandir

Question 68.
In which Ashram Malati Devi was staying?
(a) Alakashram
(b) Sebaghar
(c) Anakhia Ashram
(d) Nemalo Ashram
Answer:
(c) Anakhia Ashram

Question 69.
Name of the lady of Odisha who attended the Karachi Session of India National Congress.
(a) Kama Devi
(b) Malati Devi
(c) Kokila Devi
(d) Sarala Devi
Answer:
(b) Malati Devi

Question 70.
Who established‘Navajeevan Mandal’at Angul?
(a) Malati Devi
(b) Rama Devi
(c) Sarala Devi
(d) Kokila Devi
Answer:
(a) Malati Devi

Question 71.
Who edited a Magazine named ‘Krusaka’ (farmer)?
(a) Gopabandhu Das
(b) Gourishankar Ray
(c) Malati Devi
(d) Rama Devi
Answer:
(c) Malati Devi

Question 72.
With Mahatma Gandhi, Malati Devi traveled to which area to pacify the communal riot?
(a) Cuttak
(b) Surat
(c) Calcutta
(d) Noakhali
Answer:
(d) Noakhali

Question 73.
Which lady freedom fighter was inspired by Vinoba Babe and actively participated in Bhoodan Movement in Odisha?
(a) Kokila Devi
(b) Sarala Devi
(c) Malati Devi
(d) Rama Devi
Answer:
(c) Malati Devi

Question 74.
Name of the husband of Malati Devi.
(a) Gopabandu Das
(b) Nabakrushna Choudhury
(c) Bhagirathi Mohapatra
(d) Madhusudan Das
Answer:
(b) Nabakrushna Choudhury

Question 75.
By whose proposal, the ‘Constituent Assembly’ was formed?
(a) Risely Circular
(b) Cabinet Mission
(c) Crips
(d) O’Donnell Committee
Answer:
(b) Cabinet Mission

Question 76.
Where the meeting of the Constituent Assembly took place?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Madras
(c) Bombay
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(d) Delhi

Question 77.
Who was the first President of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) B. R. Ambedkar
(b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Sachidananda Sinha
(d) Rajendra Prasad
Answer:
Sachidananda Sinha

Question 78.
Who is regarded as the founder of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
(b) B. R. Ambedkar

Question 79.
When was the Constituent Assembly convened?
(a) 9 December 1946
(b) 27 December 1949
(c) 26 January 1950
(d) 9 March 1948
Answer:
(a) 9 December 1946

Question 80.
What was the desire of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Establishment of Democracy
(b) Establishment of Diarchy
(c) Establishment of Monarchy
(d) Establishment of Nazism
Answer:
(a) Establishment of Democracy

Question 81.
What is the type of Indian Constitution?
(a) Unwriter
(b) Writer
(c) Flexible
(d) Rigid
Answer:
(b) Writer

Question 82.
In which country is found the largest written constitution of the World?
(a) America
(b) England
(c) Germany
(d) India
Answer:
(d) India

Question 83.
What is known as the Conscience of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles
(d) Independent Judiciary
Answer:
(a) Fundamental Rights

Question 84.
The Right to Property became a Fundamental Right by which constitutional amendment?
(a) 42
(b) 43
(c) 44
(d) 62
Answer:
(a) 44

Question 85.
Before the amendment, which Article contained the Right to Property?
(a) 30
(b) 31
(c) 19
(d) 32
Answer:
(b) 31

Question 86.
What is the minimum age to cast vote in India?
(a) 18
(b) 21
(c) 14
(d) 19
Answer:
(a) 18

Question 87.
By constitutional amendment, fundamental duties have been inserted into the Indian Constitution.
(a) 42
(b) 44
(c) 47
(d) 48
Answer:
(a) 42

Question 88.
Which of the following is the highest fundamental law given to the country?
(a) High Court
(b) Lok Adalat
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Constitution
Answer:
(c) Supreme Court

Question 89.
Indian Constitution forms which type of Government?
(a) Presidential form
(b) Parliamentary form
(c) Judiciary form
(d) Legislative form
Answer:
(b) Parliamentary form

Question 90.
Indian Constitution provides which type of citizenship?
(a) Single citizenship
(b) Dual citizenship
(c) Multi citizenship
(d) No citizenship
Answer:
(a) Single citizenship

Fill in the Blanks.

Question 1.
___________ was a pre-colonial city.
Answer:
Lahore

Question 2.
The Dutch established their colony at ___________ in India.
Answer:
Muslipattnam

Question 3.
The French established their colony in India.
Answer:
Pondicharry

Question 4.
The English first established their colony in India at ___________.
Answer:
Madras

Question 5.
Among the Europeans in India ___________ were very clever.
Answer:
English

Question 6.
___________ was famous for an iron factory during colonial rule.
Answer:
Bhilai

Question 7.
From ___________ Viceroy, the census began in India.
Answer:
Lord Ripen

Question 8.
In the ‘White town’ ___________ lived.
Answer:
Europeans

Question 9.
In cities ___________ got entertainment through dance, song, tamsa, etc.
Answer:
common people

Question 10.
Viceroy ___________ first built a building at Calcutta for Governmental work.
Answer:
Lord Wellesley

Question 11.
Victoria Memorial was built in ___________.
Answer:
1906

Question 12.
At ___________ In Calcutta, High Court was built.
Answer:
Esplanade

Question 13.
By the guidance of ___________, the town hall of Bombay was built.
Answer:
Colonel Thomas Cooper

Question 14.
The clock at ___________ is built in the fashion of Big Ben of London.
Answer:
Rajabai Tower

Question 15.
The present name of Victoria Tenninus is ___________.
Answer:
Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus

Question 16.
In the year ___________ the Bombay University was constructed.
Answer:
1957

Question 17.
Eros Cinema Hall is located at ___________.
Answer:
Bombay

Question 18.
In the year ___________, the Bombay High Court started functioning.
Answer:
1862

Question 19.
Elphinstone College is situated at ___________.
Answer:
Bombay

Question 20.
___________ laid the foundation stone of the Ripon Building.
Answer:
Lord Minto

Question 21.
___________ Church has been declared a national shrine in 2006.
Answer:
St. Thomas Mount Church

Question 22.
The Madras Museum is situated at ___________.
Answer:
Egmore

Question 23.
Chepak Palace is located at ___________.
Answer:
Madras

Question 24.
The ___________ City of Pakistan was the Pre-colon Ial City.
Answer:
Lahore

Question 25.
In ___________ year began the census in India.
Answer:
1881

Question 26.
___________ Fort was built by the English at Madras.
Answer:
Fort St. George

Question 27.
___________was the first established hill station in India.
Answer:
Shimla

Question 28.
Viceroy ___________ had first shifted his residence from Delhi to Shimla during the summer.
Answer:
Lord Lawrence

Question 29.
Victorial Memorial is situated at ___________.
Answer:
Calcutta

Question 30.
The British occupied Odisha in ___________.
Answer:
1803

Question 31.
At Balasore, the Printing Press was established in ___________.
Answer:
1866

Question 32.
In ___________ year Madras Government declared Odia language to prevail in the Presidency.
Answer:
1890

Question 33.
___________ helped Nilamani Bidyaratna with the introduction of the Odia language in
Sambalpur.
Answer:
Gangadhar Meher

Question 34.
___________newspaper was published under the Patronage of Harihar Mardaraj.
Answer:
Prajabandhu

Question 35.
In ___________ year Utkal Sabha was formed at Cuttack.
Answer:
1882

Question 36.
Sir S. C. Bele was ___________ of Bengal.
Answer:
Prajabandhu

Question 37.
Sir Andrew Frazer was ___________ of Central Province.
Answer:
Chief Commission

Question 38.
In ___________ year Sambalpur was separated from Central Province.
Answer:
1905

Question 39.
A.C. Duff was a member of ___________.
Answer:
Philip Duff Committee

Question 40.
Hubback Committee was formed in ___________.
Answer:
1933

Question 41.
Committee gave a proposal for the creation of the Odisha High Court.
Answer:
Hubback Committee

Question 42.
___________ took oath as the first Governor of Odisha.
Answer:
Sir John Austin Hubback

Question 43.
Lord Linlithgo was the Chairman of ___________.
Ans.
Joint Parliamentary Committee

Question 44.
Madhusudan Das died in ___________.
Answer:
1934

Question 45.
___________ told that teaching should be imparted in Bengalee in Odisha Schools.
Answer:
Umacharan Haidar

Question 46.
___________ editorship Utkal Dipika was published.
Answer:
Gourishankar Ray

Question 47.
From ___________ place, the two newspapers named ‘Sambad Bahika’ and ‘Utkal Darsan’ were published.
Answer:
Balasore

Question 48.
___________ was the editor of ‘Sambalpur Hiteisini’.
Answer:
Nilamani Bidyaratna

Question 49.
___________ was the ruling region of Krushna Chandra Narayan Deo.
Answer:
Paralakhemundi

Question 50.
In ___________ year Simon Commission visited India.
Answer:
1928

Question 51.
__________ has been given the title the ‘Pride of Utkal’ (Utkal Gouraba).
Answer:
Madhusudan Das

Question 52.
___________is known as the ‘Grand old Man’ of Odisha.
Answer:
Madhu Babu

Question 53.
___________was elected as a member of Odisha and Chhotanagpur Municipality.
Answer:
Madhu Babu

Question 54.
___________had argued for the franchise of Odia women.
Answer:
Madhu Babu

Question 55.
___________had tried for the progress of filigree work at Cuttack.
Answer:
Madhu Babu.

Question 56.
Gopabandhu died in ___________.
Answer:
1928

Question 57.
___________ had started the Gandhian (Congress) movement in Odisha,
Answer:
Gopabandhu Das

Question 58.
___________ is the founder of the newspaper ‘Samaj’.
Answer:
Gopabandhu Das

Question 59.
___________had participated in the First Round Table Conference.
Answer:
Krushna Chandra Gajapati

Question 60.
Alakashrama was established on the river bank of ___________.
Answer:
Alaska

Question 61.
___________Committee had finalized the administrative function and territorial arrangement of Odisha Province.
Answer:
Hubback Committee

Question 62.
Rama Devi Participated in the Salt Satyagraha at ___________ of the Balasore District.
Answer:
Inchudi

Question 63.
___________had pacified the student agitation at Ravenshaw College in 1964.
Answer:
1964

Question 64.
In the Salt Satyagraha in Ganjam, Women freedom fighters ___________played a vital role.
Answer:
Sarala Devi

Question 65.
___________ translated the book ‘History of Indian National Congress’ into Odia language.
Answer:
Sarala Devi

Question 66.
___________was the husband of Malati Choudhury.
Answer:
Nabakrushna Choudhury

Question 67.
___________had established Baji Rout Hostel at Angul.
Answer:
Malati Devi

Question 68.
___________had donated all her ornaments to the ‘Utkal Congress Socialist Workers Association’.
Answer:
Malati Devi

Question 69.
___________had played a vital role in the Garjat Movement.
Answer:
Malati Devi

Question 70.
Madhu Babu had accepted ___________religion.
Answer:
Christianity

Question 71.
In ___________village of Puri District Gopabandhu Das was born.
Answer:
Suando

Question 72.
After India became independent, in ___________ movement did Rama Devi join.
Answer:
Bhoodan Movement

Question 73.
In 1921, ___________session of the Indian Congress was attended by Sarala Devi.
Answer:
Nagpur

Question 74.
___________Magazine was edited by Malati Devi.
Answer:
Krusaka

Question 75.
___________, Women Freedom Fighter of Odisha had denied receiving the ‘ Jaimmalal Bajaj Foundation’Award.
Answer:
Malati Devi

Question 76.
The Magazine titled ‘Satyabadi’ was published at ___________.
Answer:
Sarshigopal

Question 77.
The present name of Victoria High School is ___________.
Answer:
Bhakta Madhu Vidyapitha

Question 78.
For restoring communal harmony, ___________ traveled with Mahatma Gandhi in the Noakhali area of Bengal.
Answer:
Malati Devi

Question 79.
___________was a member of the Odisha Provincial Council from 1937 to 1944.
Answer:
Sarala Devi

Question 80.
In the Prajamandal Movement of Odisha, ___________ played a vital role.
Answer:
Malati Devi

Question 81.
The Indian Constitution came into force from ___________.
Answer:
26 January 1950

Question 82.
___________was the Permanent Chairman of the Constituent Assem iy.
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 83.
___________is the father of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
B. R. Ambedkar

Question 84.
The Indian Constitution was adopted in ___________.
Answer:
26 November 1949

Question 85.
The idea of ___________ freedom struggle has been reflected in the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
American War of Independence

Question 86.
The idea of ___________revolution created an idea in forming the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
French Revolution

Question 87.
India is a Union of ___________.
Answer:
States

Question 88.
By ___________, the Supreme Court of India protects the interest of the Citizens.
Answer:
Writ

Question 89.
The Indian Constitution contains ___________ fundamental duties.
Answer:
10

Question 90.
The fundamental rights are the conscience of the Indian Constitution was told by ___________.
Answer:
Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 91.
The constitutional amendment procedure has been described in Article ___________.
Answer:
368

Question 92.
Article ___________ of the Indian Constitution empowers a citizen to profess and propagate religion as per one’s desire.
Answer:
Article 25

Question 93.
The Indian Judiciary works on ___________.
Answer:
Integrated Judicial System

Question 94.
___________was the advisor of the Constitutional Drafting Committee.
Answer:
B.N. Rao

Question 95.
___________ is the objective of the constitution.
Answer:
Preamble

Question 96.
___________one is called as the ‘Lawyers Paradise’.
Answer:
Indian Constitution

Question 97.
___________ Indian first thought about the Constituent Assembly.
Answer:
Manabendra Roy

Question 98.
___________is regarded as the conscience of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights

Question 99.
___________ Articles are there in the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
395

Question 100.
___________ schedules are there in the Indian Constitution
Answer:
10

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Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Solutions Unit 4 Process of Thinking Objective Questions.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class Psychology Unit 4 Process of Thinking Objective Questions

Multiple Choice Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Drawing a mental picture in the absence of the object is called _______.
(a) Perception
(b) Illusion
(c) Hallucination
(d) Image
Answer:
(d) Image

Question 2.
Creativity is explored at _______.
(a) early age
(b) middle age
(c) late age
(d) right
Answer:
(a) early age

Question 3.
There is no test to measure creativity among _______.
(a) children
(b) adults
(c) illiterates
(d) educated persons
Answer:
(c) illiterates

Question 4.
Creativity is a branch of ________.
(a) Social Psychology
(b) General Psychology
(c) Industrial Psychology
(d) Personality Psychology
Answer:
(b) General Psychology

Question 5.
Creativity means _______.
(a) Autistic thinking
(b) Associative
Answer:
(b) Associative

Question 6.
The pioneer of creativity research is _______.
(a) Yackson
(b) Wertheimer
(c) Guilford
(d) Torrence
Answer:
(d) Torrence

Question 7.
Creativity depends on _______.
(a) Originality
(b) Personality
(c) Learning Capacity
(d) Retention capacity
Answer:
(a) Originality

Question 8.
Creativity is otherwise known as _______.
(a) Imaginative thinking
(b) Insightful thinking
(c) Autistic thinking
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Imaginative thinking

Question 9.
Vigour research on creativity was started in the year _______.
(a) 1877
(b) 1945
(c) 1960
(d) 1918
Answer:
(d)1918

Question 10.
Creativity starts growing from the age of _______.
(a) 6 months
(b) 3 years
(c) 20 years
(d) 30 years
Answer:
(a) 6 months

Question 11.
Daydreams are _______.
(a) realistic
(b) unrealistic
(c) fantasies
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) fantasies

Question 12.
Problem-solving seems an impossibility in the absence of _______.
(a) Verbal symbols
(b) Non-verbal symbols
(c) Sensory symbols
Answer:
(a) Verbal symbols

Question 13.
Problem-solving involves _______.
(a) Conditioning
(b) Trial and error
(c) Rigidity
Answer:
(b) Trial and error

Question 14.
Motivation gives problem-solving a _______.
(a) Set
(b) Meed
(c) Direction
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Direction

Question 15.
The solution to the problem becomes difficult when the person is emotionally _______.
(a) Upset
(b) Sound
(c) immature
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) immature

Question 16.
_______ stands in the way of a solution to a problem.
(a) flexibility
(b) rigidity
(c) partiality
(d) intelligence
Answer:
(b) rigidity

Question 17.
When in a problem-solving situation the solution to a problem occurs after dealing with the problem it is called ________.
(a) Foresight
(b) hindsight
(c) Insight
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) hindsight

Question 18.
Problem-solving has been essentially regarded as a process of thinking in _______.
(a) function
(b) structure
(c) solution
(d) manipulation
Answer:
(d) manipulation

Question 19.
Every person’s thinking takes place in his own unique.
(a) environment
(b) background
(c) society
(d) status
Answer:
(a) environment

Question 20.
For the solution of problems, manipulation __________ is necessary.
(a) Ideas
(b) concepts
(c) percepts
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 21.
In thinking _________ trial and error is mostly involved.
(a) overt
(b) covert
(c) manual
Answer:
(b) covert

Question 22.
Language is unique to ________.
(a) human beings
(b) higher animals
(c) animals
(d) subhuman species
Answer:
(a) human beings

Question 23.
For communication _______ is essential.
(a) gesture
(b) language
(c) thought
(d) crying
Answer:
(b) language

Question 24.
Language and thought are ________.
(a) same
(b) different
(c) independent of each other
(d) overlap each other
Answer:
(b) different

Question 25.
Language is an important mode of _______.
(a) communication
(b) gesture
(c) silent talk
(d) overt activity
Answer:
(a) communication

Question 26.
Thought is _______.
(a) Overt
(b) Covert
(c) External
(b) Verbal
Answer:
(a) Overt

Question 27.
Language has _______ contents.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(b) three

Question 28.
Motive is a ________.
(a) desire
(b) impulse
(c) behaviour
(d) general trait
Answer:
(a) desire

Question 29.
Edwards’s personal preference schedule assesses,
(a) one single motive
(b) many motives
(c) many desires
(d) strength of motives
Answer:
(d) strength of motives

Question 30.
Animals stop behaving when they _______.
(a) sleep
(b) rest
(c) pause
(d) die
Answer:
(d) die

Question 31.
When there is a drive-in level of activity the strength of the drive is supposed to _______.
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remains constant
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) increase

Question 32.
Drive is a _______state.
(a) physiological
(b) social
(c) personal
(d) all of these
Answer:
(a) physiological

Question 33.
Organic drives are also known as drives ___________.
(a) physiological
(b) biological
(c) social
(d) all these
Answer:
(a) physiological

Question 34.
___________ refers to the motive to keep contact with people.
(a) curiosity
(b) gregariousness
(c) assertiveness
Answer:
(b) gregariousness

Question 35.
Activity method measures the __________of motive.
(a) type
(b) strength
(c) nature
(d) all these
Answer:
(b) strength

Question 36.
The desire to explore refers to the motive of ___________.
(a) approval
(b) achievement
(c) affiliation
(d) curiosity
Answer:
(d) curiosity

Question 37.
Though ___________method one chooses between two or more incentives.
(a) activity method
(b) method of choice
(c) method of preference
(d) all these
Answer:
(c) method of preference

Question 38.
__________acts as a motivation to perform.
(a) curiosity
(b) knowledge of result
(c) approval
Answer:
(b) knowledge of result

Question 39.
___________stressed the idea of psychic determinism in unconscious motivation.
(a) Jung
(b) Freud
(c) Adler
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Jung

Question 40.
Motivation is related to the _________ of human behaviour.
(a) What
(b) How
(c) Why
(d) all these
Answer:
(c) Why

Question 41.
Factors of motivation can be categorised under ______ and ______ head.
(a) need
(b) drive
(c) physiological
(d) social
(e) incentive
Answer:
(d) social

Question 42.
In motivational cycle _______steps are invoked.
(a) four
(b) three
(c) two
(d) five
Answer:
(b) three

Question 43.
The goal is the______ point of a motivational cycle.
(a) beginning
(b) middle
(c) end
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) end

Question 44.
The importance of motivation for learning follows from ________.
(a) law of exercise
(b) law of belongingness
(c) law of effect
(d) law of readiness
Answer:
(c) law of effect

Question 45.
The famous experiment on knowledge of results was conducted by ________.
(a) Hull
(b) Thorndike
(c) Watson
(d) Leeper
Answer:
(b) Thorndike

Question 46.
Motivation is _______ for learning.
(a) useless
(b) indispensable
(c) unnecessary
Answer:
(b) indispensable

Question 47.
Level of aspiration is also known as ________.
(a) goal discrepancy behaviour
(b) attainment discrepancy behaviour
(c) goal setting behaviour
(d) all the above
Answer:
(c) goal setting behaviour

Question 48.
Morgan offers a theory of motivation which is basically _______.
(a) Psychological
(b) Sociological
(c) Physiological
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Physiological

Question 49.
The physiological theory of motivation has been advanced by _______.
(a) Hilgard
(b) Young
(c) Morgan
(d) Murray
Answer:
(c) Morgan

Question 50.
Hunger, thirst and sex are known as _______drives.
(a) basic
(b) secondary
(c) psychological
Answer:
(a) basic

Question 51.
The self-actualisation theory of motivation is also called the _______ theory of motivation.
(a) physiological
(b) psychoanalytic
(c) hierarchical
(d) achievement
Answer:
(c) hierarchical

Question 52.
The self-actualisation of the theory of motivation was advanced by _______.
(a) Leeper
(b) Lindsey
(c) Maslow
(d) Young
Answer:
(c) Maslow

Question 53.
Curiosity is a _______ drive.
(a) Psychological
(b) Organic
(c) social
(d) Personal
Answer:
(a) Psychological

Question 54.
Need for aggression is inevitable for self _______.
(a) Actualisation
(b) Preservation
(c) Sufficiency
(d) None of those
Answer:
(b) Preservation

Question 55.
Social approval motive is measured by the _______.
(a) T.A.T. method
(b) Questionnaire technique
(c) Maslow Crowne social desirability scale.
Answer:
(c) Maslow Crowne social desirability scale.

Question 56.
Level of activity is _______ related to the strength of motive.
(a) positively
(b) negatively
(c) neutrally
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) positively

Question 57.
P.T. Young conducted an experiment on the method of preference using _______.
(a) monkeys
(b) cats
(c) rats
(d) human beings
Answer:
(c)rats

Question 58.
The constancy of the internal environment is maintained by _______.
(a) mobilisation of behaviour
(b) homeostasis
(c) drive
Answer:
(b) homeostasis

Question 59.
Social motives are called _______ motives.
(a) primary
(b) secondary
(c) essential
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) secondary

Question 60.
A socially approved person shows greater sensitivity and respect to _______.
(a) personal interest
(b) society
(c) fulfilment of basic needs
Answer:
(b) society

Question 61.
Many different activities may have a _______motivation.
(a) specific
(b) common
(c) different
Answer:
(b) common

Question 62.
Post-hypnotic suggestion provides a good example of _______ motivation.
(a) conscious
(b) unconscious
(c) social
(d) biological
Answer:
(b) unconscious

Question 63.
The motive to keep contact with others is called _______.
(a) self-assertiveness
(b) gregariousness
(c) mastery
(d) dependency.
Answer:
(b) gregariousness

Question 64.
_______ is among the Arapesh, Zuni, Hopi and other groups.
(a) self-assertiveness
(b) gregariousness
(c) mastery
(d) dependency
Answer:
(a) self-assertiveness

Question 65.
The urge to achieve is expressed in _______.
(a) need for self-actualisation
(b) assertiveness
(c) need for achivement .
Answer:
(c) need for achievement

Question 66.
Gregariousness is due to _______.
(a) social conditioning
(b) inherited traits
(c) biological factors
Answer:
(a) social conditioning

Question 67.
Both thrive and incentive factors in mobilising one’s _______.
(a) resources
(b) ability
(c) need
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 68.
Some organic, needs can be made extremely great by removing of certain _______.
(a) duct glands
(b) ductless glands
(c) sex glands
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) ductless glands

Question 69.
The obstruction box has been standardised by _______.
(a) Warden and his associates
(b) Weiner ardstellar
(c) HoffinanandWed
(d) Nissen
Answer:
(a) Warden and his associates

Question 70.
The delayed reward of even 15 seconds reduces the incentive value considerably as viewed by _______.
(a) Warden
(b) Hamilton
(c) Skinner
(d) Hull
Answer:
(a) Warden

Question 71.
Perhaps the clearest picture of the uncomplicated effect of punishment is obtained by experiments with the _______.
(a) obstruction box
(b) Skinner box
(c) Maize box
(d) Problem box
Answer:
(b) Skinner box

Question 72.
Sherrington’s work on the integrative action of the nervous system is his discovery of
(a) reactive inhibition
(b) reciprocal inhibition
(c) response inhibition
(d) stimulus inhibition
Answer:
(b) reciprocal inhibition

Question 73.
A challenging frustration-aggression hypothesis was put forward by group _______ of investigators.
(a) Yale
(b) Swiss
(c) German
(d) Harvard
Answer:
(a) Yale

Question 74.
An electric grill is a very convenient form of _______.
(a) Stimulator
(b) Obstructor
(c) Reactor
(d) Respirator
Answer:
(b) Obstructor

Question 75.
Anger is a ______ emotion.
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Neutral
Answer:
(b) Negative

Question 76.
Fear is a ______emotion.
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Neutral
Answer:
(b) Negative

Question 77.
Love is a ______emotion.
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Neutral
Answer:
(a) Positive

Question 78.
The Russian Psychologist _______ found that involuntary finger movements were a valuable adjunct to the word association method of the detection.
(a) Pavlov
(b) Luria
(c) Luchins
(d) Chappella
Answer:
(a) Pavlov

Question 79.
Cannon’s theory of emotion was mainly concerned with _______.
(a) Endocrine glands
(b) Blood pressure
(c) Sensitivity to the environmental stimulus
Answer:
(b) Blood pressure

Question 80.
The emergency theory of emotion is also called _______.
(a) James Lange’s theory
(b) Cannon-Bard Theory
(c) Hypothalamic theory
(d) Activation theory
Answer:
(d) Activation theory

Question 81.
The Cannon-Bard theory is different from _______.
(a) Activation theory
(b) Emergency theory
(c) Hypothalamic theory
Answer:
(b) Emergency theory

Question 82.
At the time of emotion secretion from glands are _______.
(a) Reduced
(b) Stopped
(c) Accelerated
(d) As usual
Answer:
(a) Reduced

Question 83.
________have a major role to play during emotional situations.
(a) rods and cones
(b) ear
(c) glands
(d) hands and muscles
Answer:
(c) glands

Question 84.
During the strong emotional experience, the physiological changes that occur in the human body are mainly due to _______.
(a) Sudden rise in blood pressure
(b) Sudden rise in a heartbeat.
(c) Impulses from the autonomic nervous system
(d) Impulses coming from sex glands.
Answer:
(c) Impulses from the autonomic nervous system

Question 85.
Watson conducted an experiment on a baby named to ______ demonstrate how fear develops.
(a) Aalinc
(b) Albert
(c) Aiers
(d) Alps
Answer:
(c) Aiers

Question 86.
To demonstrate how the emotion of fear develops an experiment on a baby named Albert was conducted by ______.
(a) Bridges
(b) Watson
(c) Williams
(d) Jersild
Answer:
(b) Watson

Question 87.
A severe crisis situation is successfully dealt with by people because of the secretion of ______ to blood.
(a) Pituitrin
(b) Thyroxine
(c) Proactive
(d) Sex hormones
Answer:
(b) Thyroxine

Question 88.
________is associated with emotion.
(a) Frontal cortex
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Hypothalamus
Answer:
(b) Cerebellum

Question 89.
In anger, excessive secretion of _______is found.
(a)Thyroxine
(b) Adrenalin
(c)Putitarin
Answer:
(c)Putitarin

Question 90.
Sympathetic activation causes ________.
(a) a decrease in the heart rate
(b) an increase in the heart rats
(c) a decrease in pulse rate
(d) decrease in blood pressure
Answer:
(b) an increase in the heart rats

Question 91.
During states of emotional stress skin resistance to electric current.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) no change in the earlier resistance
(d) creates a feeling of discomfort
Answer:
(b) decreases

Question 92.
According to the emergency theory of emotion, the function of emotion is to ________.
(a) reduce anxiety
(b) provide body relief
(c) increase emergency action
(d) all these
Answer:
(b) provide body relief

Question 93.
The hypothalamus which controls emotional behaviour is located ________.
(a) in the brain stem
(b) in the cerebral cortex
(c) at the base of the brain
(d) in the medulla
Answer:
(c) at the base of the brain

Question 94.
Fear stimulus initiates physiological reactions in the ________.
(a) central nervous system
(b) reticular activating system
(c) spinal cord
(d) sympathetic nervous system
Answer:
(d) sympathetic nervous system

Question 95.
Which of the following is connected with emotional behaviour?
(a) Pons
(b) Occipital lobe
(c) Hypothalamus
(d) Reticular activating system
Answer:
(d) Reticular activating system

Question 96.
Which of the following is not connected with emotional behaviour?
(a) Thalamus
(b) Hypothalamus
(c) Hindbrain
Answer:
(c) Hindbrain

Question 97.
Cannon Brad’s theory is related to ________.
(a) learning
(b) perception
(c) motivation
(d) emotion
Answer:
(c) motivation

Question 98.
The James-Lange theory is in relevance with ________.
(a) personality
(b) motivation
(c) emotion
(d) sensation
Answer:
(d) sensation

Question 99.
The motivational theory of Leoper is a theory of ________.
(a) emotion
(b) motive
(c) thinking
(d) sensation
Answer:
(c) thinking

Question 100.
That the infant is bom with one basic emotion, a general excitement is the view of ________.
(a) Watson
(b) Morgan
(c) Darwin
(d) Bridges
Answer:
(a) Watson

Question 101.
________was one of the first scientists to investigate emotional expressions in infants.
(a) Watson
(b) Morgan
(c) Darwin
(d) Irwin
Answer:
(d) Irwin

Question 102.
By the age of 24 months, all emotions develop. This is held by ________.
(a) Darwin
(b) Watson
(c) Bridges
(d) all these
Answer:
(a) Darwin

Question 103.
Freedom, Loring and Martin have advanced a theory that emphasises the adaptive and survival value of infants.
(a) crying
(b) smiling
(c) jealousy
(d) anger
Answer:
(c) jealousy

Question 104.
Stranger anxiety and separation anxiety appear towards the end of the ________of life.
(a) eight months of life
(b) one year of life
(c) 24 months of life
Answer:
(c) 24 months of life

Question 105.
Fear of snakes is a product of psychological maturation. This is held by ________.
(a) Valentine
(b) Watson
(c) Donald Hebb
(d) Gewirtz
Answer:
(b) Watson

Question 106.
________factors are important in determining the nature and importance of children’s fears.
(a) Cognitive
(b) Conative
(c) Affective
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Conative

Question 107.
Mother emotion with important social implications for social development is ________.
(a) Distress
(b) Zcalousy
(c) Sentiment
(d) Fear
Answer:
(d) Fear

Question 108.
________is a social phenomenon.
(a) Anger
(b) Laughter
(c) Distress
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Anger

Question 109.
In the development of emotion, _________ plays a major role.
(a) Maturation
(b) Intelligence
(c) Personality
(d) Organic factors
Answer:
(b) Intelligence

Question 110.
The galvanic skin response is measured with an apparatus called ________.
(a) Pupillo metrics
(b) Psychogalvanometer
(c) Kymograph
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Pupillo metrics

Question 111.
William James who developed the James Lange theory belongs to the ________school of psychology.
(a) Structural
(b) Functional
(c) Behaviouristic
(d) Cognitive
Answer:
(b) Functional

Question 112.
Smiling in response to a smile does not usually occur before the child is about ________ months old.
(a) one month
(b) two months
(c) five months
(d) six month
Answer:
(b) two months

Question 113.
Pleasure and displeasure of a person can be known from his _______.
(a) Physiological change
(b) facial expression
(c) blood pressure
Answer:
(b) facial expression

Question 114.
Emotion is expressed through ______.
(a) language
(b) gesture
(c) facial expression
(d) all of these
Answer:
(b) gesture

Question 115.
The activity of the heart in emotion is often studied by examining the shape of the curve obtained with an _______.
(a) electroencephalograph
(b) electric cardiograph
(c) electric strobophoto graph
(d) none of these
Answer:
(d) none of these

Question 116.
The importance of postural reaction in emotion has been given by _______.
(a) James Lange’s theory
(b) Emergency theory
(c) Activation theory
(d) Opponent process theory
Answer:
(b) Emergency theory

Question 117.
Gastrointestinal functions are often measured by means of ballons into the ______.
(a) stomach
(b) intestine
(c) stomach or intestine
Answer:
(a) stomach

Question 118.
Whether a person is emotionally aroused or not can be known by measuring his ______.
(a) Physiological changes
(b) Psychological changes
(c) Facial expression
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Psychological changes

Question 119.
A can differentiate emotion from nonemotional states.
(a) Kymograph
(b)Neumograph
(c) Lie detector
(d) Pupilometrics
Answer:
(d) Pupilometrics

Question 120.
Excessive discharge of adrenalin during emotional states increases the level of _______.
(a) Blood pressure
(b) Blood sugar
(c) Heart Action
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 121.
James Lange’s theory is also known as ______.
(a) thalamic theory
(b) hypothalamic
(c) emergency theory
(d) none of these
Answer:
(d) none of these

Question 122.
The lie detector was devised by _______.
(a) Frans Halls
(b) Good enough
(c) Davis
(d) Leonarde Keeler
Answer:
(d) Leonarde Keeler

True Or False Type Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Imagination is a controlled association while thinking is a free association. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Thinking always involves a problem. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Thinking is not possible without images. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Creativity is not found in idiots. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Deaf is equally creative. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 6.
Physical handicap has nothing to do with creativity. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Blinds are more creative than normals. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Physical handicaps stand in the way of creativity. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 9.
A creative individual is equally creative in all fields. (True /False)
Answer:
False

Question 10.
Creativity starts growing from birth. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 11.
Reasoning at the human level begins in early childhood. (True /False)
Answer:
True

Question 12.
The reasoning is not found in animals. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 13.
Reasoning first appears in lower animals like rats. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 14.
Reasoning combined with past experience helps in solving a problem. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 15.
Multiple choice test in a sense is a set of generalising abilities. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 16.
Maier has developed a reasoning test for children. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 17.
Maier has developed a reasoning test for rats. (True /False)
Answer:
False

Question 18.
Nerve has developed a multiple-choice apparatus for use with human subjects. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 19.
Proper direction helps to reason. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 20.
Thinking is called sub-vocal talking. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 21.
Language is unique in human beings. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 22.
Language has no role in the socialization process. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 23.
Language is not required for the transmission of culture and heritage. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 24.
The acquisition of language is required for concept formation. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 25.
A language is a primary tool of communication. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 26.
Biological motives are inborn. (True/ False)
Answer:
True

Question 27.
Drive and incentives are emotional factors as distinguished from ability. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 28.
Me Dougall and Freud both treated motivation in terms of energy. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 29.
The importance of motivation for learning follows from the law of exercise. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 30.
The barrier makes the motive stronger. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 31.
Knowledge of results brings improvement in learning. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 32.
Level aspiration is improved by failure and lowered by success. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 33.
The level of aspiration is also known as goal discrepancy behaviour. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 34.
The level of aspiration is indispensable for learning. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 35.
The level of aspiration acts as a drive or motivator. (True/ False)
Answer:
True

Question 36.
The physiological theory of motivation has been advanced by Morgan. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 37.
Hunger, sex and thirst are organic drives. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 38.
The Law of effect directs human behaviour in a particular direction. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 39.
The level of aspiration is otherwise known as goal-setting behaviour. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 40.
The hierarchical theory of motivation is also known as the self-actualisation theory of motivation. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 41.
The self-actualisation theory of motivation was advanced by Wolfe. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 42.
Curiosity is a physical drive. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 43.
The need for aggression is inevitable for self-preservation. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 44.
Gregariousness is an inborn need. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 45.
Gregariousness develops out of social conditioning. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 46.
As the human child grows his physiologically motivated behaviours are socialised. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 47.
The socialisation of motives takes place because of social approval and conditioning. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 48.
Social approval motive is measured by the Socio-Economic Status Scale. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 49.
Social approval is measured by Maslow’s crown social desirability scale. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 50.
Social approval motive is very much desirable for sound personality development.(True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 51.
PT. Young conducted an experiment On the method of preference using cats. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 52.
Seasonal breeding, the cycle of feeding, elimination and seasonal changes in the migration of birds is observed by the laboratory observation method. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 53.
Homeostasis refers to the restoration of physiological balance and equilibrium. (True/ False)
Answer:
True

Question 54.
Organic drives are also known as biological drives. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 55.
The thirst drive is stronger than the hunger drive. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 56.
Sleep is a basic need. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 57.
Sex is said to be a powerful personal drive. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 58.
Social motives are called secondary motives. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 59.
Two equally attractive goals produce conflict. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 60.
Slip of the tongue is an unconscious motivation. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 61.
An unconscious attitude is illustrated by Phobia whose origin is unknown to the person concerned. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 62.
Many of the motives which influence the behaviour of a particular individual significantly are unrecognised by the person himself. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 63.
Personal variation is found in different types of motivation. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 64.
Life goals have often their origin in early experiences. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 65.
Particular motives often characterise a given culture rather than the whole of mankind. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 66.
All motives are free from childhood training. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 67.
The origin of some motives is found in childhood training. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 68.
All motives are acquired. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 69.
Drives and instincts are the same. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 70.
Knowledge of performance is a material incentive. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 71.
Many different activities may have common motivations. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 72.
Post-hypnotic suggestion provides a good example of Unconscious motivation. (True/ False)
Answer:
True

Question 73.
Social motives are found in all normal human beings. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 74.
We acquire hundreds of needs, few of which have very clear psychological roots. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 75.
The self-assertive motive is also known as the mastery motive. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 76.
The motive to keep contact with others is called assertiveness. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 78.
Frigidity and impotence represent high tide in sexual drive. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 79.
Testosterone and androgenic hormone appear to play a key role in the sexual life of female animals. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 80.
The influence of social eating on the amount eaten is observed even in animals. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 81.
Habit and social customs account for most of our aversions to certain foods. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 82.
Hunger pangs, stomach contractions and related body activity, in general, depend upon blood chemistry. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 83.
Motivation is derived from the Latin word “Movere” which means to move. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 84.
Social motives are not always learned motives. (True/False)
Answer:
False