CHSE Odisha Class 11 History Unit 5 Long Answer Questions Part-1

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 History Solutions Unit 5 Long Answer Questions Part 1.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class History Unit 5 Long Answer Questions Part-1

Long Questions With Answers

Question 1.
When the First World War began and what are its causes?
Answer:
The First World War began in 1914. It ended in 1918. As a war it is unique. It was a war that made all regions of the world take part in it, either directly or indirectly. A century before it, the great wars of Napoleon’s time were limited only to Europe. In other words, before 1914, wars were regional or confined to a continent. But the First World War was a war in which all continents fought on behalf of any one of the two main groups of nations.

Thus, Winston Churchill says, “the great war differed from all previous wars.” The world fought this war for 1565 days from 28 June 1914 to 11 November 1918. Major General Taylor, in his book “History of Modem Wars” describes this war as the bloodiest and the costliest, till 1938.
More than 13 million people died and over 15 million were wounded out of whom 7 million were rendered invalid for the rest of their lives.

These figures are more than twice the total of all wars from 1790 to 1913 taken together. The soldiers killed in the war molded into the soil, and the common people, the civilians, suffered from miseries of starvation, epidemics, massacres, raids, and diseases. The birth rate of many nations came to be affected. The economic losses of a modem war are incalculable.

Speaking of the First World War, Lipson says, “a modem war is fought on two fronts the fighting front and the home front.” Because of the incalculable economic losses in a modem war, “in an economic sense, there are no victors (of a war).” However, according to One account, the world lost 270 billion dollars as a result of the First World War. This great war had no precedent, and it produced a new out¬look to war as an institution.

Causes of the First World War (1914-1918):
The First World War was the first great war of its kind. It involved the big powers and their colonies; as such it was a global war such a great war was bound to have a number of causes at the root of its outbreak. No single cause, however important, could alone have produced such a war. Multiple causes lay behind the outbreak of the First World War.

Aggressive Nationalism :
The first cause of this great war was aggressive nationalism. The French Revolution (1789) had given a new emphasis to nationalism. It came to promote the ideas of nationalism in all countries in general and in Poland, Germany, Italy, and the Netherlands in particular. That is why Edmund Burke came to describe the 19th century as the ‘age of nationalism.

During the hundred years from the defeat of Napoleon till the outbreak of the First World War, not only the people in all countries wanted to strengthen their nations but also a sense of national pride led them to work out ways and means for making their nation stronger than other nations.

Industrial Competition:
The second cause of the First World War was the economic competition among the nations as a result of the industrial revolution. It is said, ‘‘Industrialisation gave birth to imperialism.” This is explained by the nature of the effect of the industrial revolution among tile developed nations. As industrialization grew, there also grew keen competition among these advanced countries for finding more raw – materials abroad and finding more markets for their finished products.

Pure economic greed lay at t root of it all. Britain, France, Germany, Spain, and Portugal came to be engaged n a cut-throat competition in Asia and Africa for this purpose. Thus industrialization led to commercialism, commercialism to colonialism, colonialism to imperialism, imperialism to militarism, and finally to war.

Commercial Competition :
Commercialism became the natural cause of the Great War. The primary of every commercial nation was to find out new markets and monopolize those markets for individual purposes. Production of industrial goods must be matched by more sales of those so as to bring more profit and more production.

Thus, to increase sales, new markets were necessary. The more the markets, the more the sale and so, so profit. The British did the same in India, and the European powers and Japan did it to China by the end of the 19th century. There were no accepted rules for international commerce and business was the business of the powers.

Sometimes the interests of one came in conflict with that of another. For example, in Morocco in 1906, there was almost a war between Germany on the one hand and Britain and France on the other. War might have been avoided in such cases, but the relationships grew bitter. This made a final show-down among the rivals almost certain. The First World War came as a climax to this international bitterness.

Colonial Rivalries :
One way of relief from this bitterness was to establish one’s own colonies for oneself. A colony would be only under the ‘mother country’ to whom alone it would give its raw- materials and from whom it would purchase the finished products. Regions in Asia, Africa, and South America came to see competition among these powers for colonization.

Examples of colonial rivalries were many, but the most outstanding ones were Japan’s conflict with the USA and Russia in China, Austro-German rivalry with Russia in the Balkans and Central Europe, and Anglo-German enmity arising out of naval competition and armament. Thus, international friendship and rivalries were already determined, before 1914, out of economic interests.

Imperialist Competition:
Naturally, colonialism led to imperialism, resulting in wars, sometimes small but finally the big one in 1914. The two centuries before the First World War had seen the powerful European countries establishing vast overseas empires for themselves. During the 19th century, in particular, these imperialist countries fought for more colonies.

Just as India was the colonial ‘Jewel’ in the British Crown, so every country including Germany after 1871 wanted to establish colonies or to acquire more colonies. Imperialism stands for power, strength, and forceful domination. In this game of ‘might is right’, there are no rules or referees.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 History Unit 5 Long Answer Questions Part-1

Question 2.
Short Notes on.
Militarism and race for armaments :
Conquest by force was the order of the day during the forty years before the Great War. So militarism was the result of this process. Victory is possible through better and superior military power. The race for armaments began among all. Each power wanted to have the latest, the best, and the most lethal weapons. Advancements in scientific research brought many new, though inhuman, weapons, without better arms, victory is impossible in modem wars.

The race for armaments was a never-ending process. A minor spark in this race was bound to bring in conflagrations; a minor conflict might end up in a major war. Thus, aggressive nationalism, industrial competition, commercial rivalries, colonial competition, imperialism, and militarism made the First World War inevitable. The basic causes were translated to actual war by the following practical causes.

Power Politics:
The big powers of Europe were Britain, Germany, France,- Austria-Hungary, Russia, and Italy. They all looked upon one another with suspicion as all of them were engaged in the competition for more power. The rise of two non-European powers, the USA and Japan, also came to add to this struggle for power.

Thus the relations of nations came to be determined along two lines, namely, the power-politics relationship and the convenient-cooperation relationship. In the former, a friend of a friend and the enemy of an enemy was regarded as friends; the friend of an enemy and the enemy of a friend were enemies. Inconvenient cooperation relationship, two or more countries come together as long as this helped both sides.

The Russain-German friendship till 1882 and the Anglo-Japanese alliance till the war can be cited as two of the many such friendships of the period. This was the game of politics or power politics. Also, in this struggle for power, no country was sure of victory over its enemy in a war, because of the ‘balance of power’.

Balance of Power :
Since the Congress of Vienna, the countries of Europe had agreed upon a ‘balance of power’. It meant that no country would be allowed to grow stronger than others. Napoleon was defeated only by a coalition of European powers because France was stronger than any of them. Thus, they adopted the policy in 1815 that no single country would be allowed to grow stronger than others.

Thus, when a country would not sure of victory over another country, it would not resort to war; and in the absence of war, peace would prevail. From 1815 to 1914, there was no major war except the Crimean War. The peace of this period was due to the balance of power. Lord Hankey, therefore, says that the balance of power “held peace in Europe for the longest time” before the First World War.

Triple Alliance :
But this was an uneasy peace. Countries now decided to safeguard themselves by forming themselves into groups of friends or ‘alliance groups’. Countries with similar interests and having common enemies now came to form themselves into groups or ‘Collective-fronts.’ Germany had defeated France and become the strongest power in Europe. France was now its enemy, determined to avenge the Sedan- defeat. Britain was afraid of Germany.

Austria- Hungary, and Russia were the traditional enemies. After 1882, Germany neglected Russia and openly supported Austria. Italy continued to be the friend of Germany. The Balkan region was now open to domination; Austria-Hungary, with German support, wanted to dominate the region at the cost of Russia. Thus, when Italy, in 1882, decided to join the Austro-German alliance of 1879, the three of them formed the Triple Alliance.

Question 3.
How Germany is responsible for the war?
Answer:
Germany was defeated in the First World War and in the peace conference of 1919, was declared to be guilty of having started the First World War. The defeated party ways take the blame. So, British and French historians say that Germany was primarily responsible for the First World War. This is neither reasonable nor true.

No single individual or country can be held solely responsible for the outbreak of a global war. Germany had become a newly unified nation in 1871. It was rich in natural resources but did not have colonies as markets for its industry. France was defeated by Germany in 1870-71, but France had its colonies, like Britain, years before the birth of Germany in 1871.

Germany, after 1871, was not only the strongest but also the richest in Europe. It was natural for Germany to search for colonies for herself. This brought her into conflict with France, Britain, and Russia. To hold Germany ‘solely’ responsible for these conflicts is unreasonable. For example, for the crisis in Morocco (1906), France and Britain, and even, the USA were as much responsible for the danger to peace as was the German Emperor, ‘Kaiser’ William II.

Bismarck was the first Chancellor of a United Germany. He continued to enjoy the support of his Emperor ‘Kaiser’ William I in all his steps in making Germany a more industrialized imperial power. But when William I died in 1888, his successor William II could not tolerate Bismarck. ‘There can never be more than one horse in a stable.

So, Bismarck was given retirement in 1890 and William II became the sole guardian of German destiny. Wiliam II was an ambitious militant nationalist. ‘Germany was the result of Bismarck’s policy of ‘blood an iron’. The Kaiser now wanted her to dominate the world. For that, Germany was to have a strong navy.

Napoleon’s France suffered because it did not have a strong navy. So, Germany started building up a strong navy for itself. But Britain had the strongest navy in the world and never liked any other country challenging her superior navy. Therefore, when Germany started having an equally strong navy for itself, Britain wanted an early end to this German challenge and worked for it, while putting the blame on Germany for this naval race.

Imperialism could not be the monopoly policy of one nation. When German imperialism rose from strength to strength, Britain and France were alarmed and wanted to destroy it by all means. Germany had joined the race for armaments, started by Britain and others. The Kaiser asked the German people to be strong nationalists and remember their racial, cultural and military superiority always. German industries started producing to their best capacity.

The Germans now wanted to extend their dominance over the Balkans and Central Asia. Germany started constructing the railway lines to Baghdad. The Persian sea was to be made into a German lake. This naturally alarmed the ‘entente’ members. It posed a direct threat to the Russi empire and to the British Empire in India in terms of security. But this German policy was not illegal, though it came to endanger peace in the region.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 History Unit 5 Long Answer Questions Part-1

Question 4.
Why Historians are confused about Russian Revolution?
Answer:
Many historians have confused ideas about the Russian Revolution of 1917. It was 1917 when Russia saw two great revolutions, one in March and the other in November. Each of these was historic*. The March revolution was purely a popular revolution for the overthrow of Tsarist rule. The people, not the Bolsheviks or Mensheviks, not Lenin Stalin, or Trotsky brought about this revolution.

It was spontaneous and leaderless. “The revolution found them sleeping”, comments Lipson on the revolutionary leaders. No revolutionary group or party prepared for it or anticipated it. It is only after Tsarism was overthrown and a provisional government set up in Russia that the revolutionary groups became active.

The Bolshevik revolutionary party, then, successfully brought about the second revolution of the year, in November and captured power under Lenin’s leadership. The latter is known as Bolshevik Revolution, with its ideals of socialism. But the March Revolution was aimed at the liberation of the people from the oppressive rule of the Tsars.

Thus, it can be said that the people of Russia liberated themselves; only after that, the Bolsheviks captured power to teach them the doctrine of socialism as opposed to capitalism. The second Bolshevik Revolution adopted the ideas of Karl Marx and Dr. Friedrich Engels. These two German geniuses developed their idea of socialism during the days of the industrial revolution in Europe.

They called for the overthrow of capitalism and the establishment of socialism in its place. Mainly they wanted all powers of production and distribution for the workers and laborers and from private owners. The means of production, privately owned under capitalism should be socially owned under socialism.

Capitalism stood for profit but socialism stood for service to all the people. Capitalism is based on conflict whereas socialism is based on cooperation. Socialism stood to end the capitalist system of exploitation of man by man. Socialism bridges the gap between the rich and the poor; capitalism widens this gap.

Question 5.
What are ‘February’ and ‘October’ Revolutions?
Answer:
The Russian Revolution of March 1917 can be described as two revolutions or a single revolution that developed in two-phase. The first phase of March 1017 was the political phase. “It sealed the fate of autocracy” and the monarchy was Overthrown. The second phase was the social phase the Bolshevik revolution of November 1917 – which brought into existence the first Republic of the workers.

It is interesting to remember that the Russian calendar of those days was normally thirteen days behind the international calendar. The Russians called these two revolutions as ‘February’ and ‘October’ revolutions because, as per their calendar, these occurred in the last week of February and October respectively.

The roots of the Russian Revolution lie deeply embedded in the history of Russia. Russia is an old country with a rich history. It was a big empire, almost one-sixth of the total land- area of the world. Though most of this empire was in Asia and the rest of it in Europe, Russia historically has been more European than Asiatic.

Since the early 17th century, it was ruled over by the Romanov dynasty. This dynasty was founded by Romanov. The Russians called their emperor as Tsar (of Czar), just as the Ger Emperor was known as ‘Kaiser’. Both these titles are derived from the title of Caesar, which meant the absolute head ofthe empire. Russia was traditionally an orthodox country.

It did not want to modernize itself as others in Europe were doing. Only Tsar Peter, the Great, wanted to modernize Russia with European ideas and ventures. He is said to have opened a ‘window’ to Europe, it was shut down after him till the 19th century when the people came to be in a revolting mood against their oppressive Tsars.

The military defeats of Russia in the Crimean (1854) and Russo-Japanese (1904-05) wars had resulted in popular revolts which were suppressed easily. But the series of defeats(from 1914 till 1917) during the First World War led to a mass eruption (‘February Revolution, 1917) that swept away the Tsars and the old order.

At the beginning of the 19th Century, Tsar Alexander-I was regarded as a leader of Europe. After him, Tsar Nicholas-I came to be an oppressive ruler who even brought the Crimean war for Russia. His successor, Tsar Alexander II brought in some reforms which roused the people more than benefitted them. This Tsar was killed by the extremists called ‘nihilists’.

The last two Tsars, Alexander-Ill (1881 -1894) and Nicholas-II (1894-1917) were oppressive and inefficient. Popular consciousness, roused since the 19th century could not tolerate the Tsars. The people voluntarily rose in revolt and overthrew the last Tsar in February 1917. This first phase is called the ‘February Revolution’.

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CHSE Odisha Class 11 History Unit 5 Long Answer Questions Part-1

Question 6.
What are the causes of the Russian Revolution?
Answer:
Oppressive Rule of Tsars :
Among the many causes of the Russian Revolution of 1917, the first and foremost cause was the oppressive nature of Tsarist rule in Russia. Russia was a country of extremely rich and extremely poor. Tire Tsar and his royal family, ministers, and officials of the empire formed 1.5 percent of the total population but they controlled nearly 98 percent of national wealth and income.

The rest of the population were poor peasants who worked as slaves (serfs till 1861) and were made to pay the tax that was more than their income. Punishment was heavy and the will of the officers was the law of the land. This was possible because Russia was a backward country, depending only on agriculture, without any attempt at industrialization till 1891, and without an educated middle class.

In a word, Russia was a reactionary state in a liberal Europe. Those members of rich families who got liberal education outside Russia from the latter half of the 19th century, returned to Russia to realize how backward Russia was, and wanted to correct the evils of society by educating the masses. The people ultimately came to blame the Tsar for everything.

The poverty of the people and the military defeats of Russia during the First World War made them violent and revolting. Like in the French Revolution (1789), this Russian Revolution began (March 8, 1917) with cries of ‘bread’ and ‘down with autocracy’. The place of Par in the French Revolution was taken by Petrograd in the Russian Revolution.

The misery of the People of Russia:
The miserable condition of the Russian people was the next cause. The people were poor and illiterate. They had no independent income till 1861 because they worked as ‘Serfs’ in the agricultural lands of their masters (Gentry). After 1861 when the ‘Serf system was abolished, they became agricultural laborers without any land for themselves on a permanent basis.

They were heavily taxed and were also forced to pay an additional tax for having been made free from ‘Serf status. The rotation of land allotments among them made agriculture suffer. No modem methods of cultivation and the total absence of industries (till 1891) made them groan under poverty. Families were frequent. Whatever little industrialization took place after 1891 failed to satisfy the revolutionary mood of the industrial workers.

Peasants and Workers :
The popular unrest of the peasants and industrial workers was directed against the Tsar. People were convinced that Tsar cannot solve their problems of poverty, nor could he bring Russia any wealth and glory. So the people rose in rebellion against Tsar Nicholas II. They had nothing to lose and everything to gain. This was their mood on March 8, 1917.

Question 7.
Discuss the rise of the middle class and political parties.
Answer:
The rise of the middle class in Russia and their role in the revolution was the third cause. As mentioned earlier, the second half of the 19th century saw the rise of an educated middle class. The members of this middle class were educated in Europe. They realized that Russia was poor because her people were neither educated nor conscious of nationalism.

So, they started educating the people. The Tsar’s government wanted to prevent them from doing so, by threats of punishment and exile. So, they organized themselves into political parties, like the Social Democrat and the Social Revolutionary parties. Leaders like Plekhanov worked to strengthen the political parties with grass-root support and organization.

Even extremists like ‘nihilists’ came to carry out their programs for the overthrow of Tsarism with popular support. Tsar Alexander-II was killed by the nihilists in 1881 .’Tsar Alexander III then wanted to root out the nihilists. These revolutionaries were underground, organized popular support for them, and worked tirelessly for a revolution to overthrow Tsarism.

Military Defeats:
Military defeats of Russia during the first three years of the First World War I made the people of Russia violent against Tsar Nicholas II. Russians, by nature, are sensitive about national glory. So, whenever Russia lost a war, the people rose in revolt against the Tsar. In 1856, they revolted against Tsar Alexander II for Russia’s defeat in the Crimean war in 1905 they did so against Tsar Nicholas II for Russia’s defeat in the war with Japan. They would never forgive Tsar Nicholas II for a second time for the military defeats from 1914 to 1917.

Racialism:
Racialism of the Tsars was another cause of the revolution, Russia had a large number of Jews. The Jews were rich but without a homeland. The policy of Tsar Nicholas II was to capture the wealth of the Jews by killing them for any slight excuse. He organized ‘pogroms’ in Russia where Jews in large numbers would be assembled and then massacred. This led the Jews in Russia to oppose the racialist policy of the Tsar. They got the support of the Poles, Finns, Muslims, and other subjects of Russia.

Rasputin :
Another cause of the February Revolution was the notorious role played by Rasputin in the governance ofRussia. Rasputin was a Siberian monk. He was invited by the Tsar and the Tsarina to the palace at St. Petersburg, the capital of Russia The cause of this invitation was that the baby prince was suffering from a disease that only Rasputin could cure with his magical powers. Rasputin stayed in the palace and won the queen to his side.

The Tsar being away at the battlefields during the First World War, Rasputin influenced the Tsarina to act as per his advice. Soon Rasputin’s words became law. The Tsar also fell for him, as Rasputin was the only hope for the baby prince to be cured. But the people of Russia knew the true nature of Rasputin. They hated him for his oppressive measures. They wanted his removal either by fair or foul means. He was the object of universal hatred and the target of the revolutionaries. He was killed by the revolutionaries in 1916.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 History Unit 5 Long Answer Questions Part-1

Question 8.
What is the ‘Bread’ riot – March 1917, Overthrow of Monarchy and Provisional Govt?
Answer:
Russia was basically an agricultural country. Industries were very few in number. The Russian peasants used to serve as soldiers in the country in times of war. Most of them were busy in the battles that Russia fought during the first three years of the Great War. So agriculture was neglected. Production of food grains fell down so much that a famine-like situation came over the whole country.

Long queues for bread led to disturbances. These led to strikes and protests against the monarchy. On March 8, 1917, the women workers of textile mills in Petrograd came out with a general strike. They demanded ‘bread’. Soon the workers and general public of Petrograd joined them. Cries for ‘bread’ soon took the tone of ‘Down with the War’ and ‘Down with monarchy’.

Within a week the agitation grew into a revolt. The Tsar ordered the Petrograd troops to go and suppress the revolt. Unfortunately, the troops, sent to suppress the revolt, joined the masses and turned against the Tsar himself. The Tsar had no other alternative. He abdicated the throne. The revolt became a revolution.

It was crowned with the success of the fall of the monarchy in Russia for all times to come. The masses set up a Provisional Government. This government abolished the monarchy in Russia and took over the administration of the whole of Russia. The deposed Tsar was murdered in July 1918 along with his family The workers who had overthrown the monarchy soon realized that they themselves cannot form the new government in Russia.

So they offered the reins of the administration of Russia to the middle class of Russia. The latter controlled the national parliament (Duma) and enjoyed the loyalty of the Russian army. The middle-class (bourgeoisie) would prevent any attempt on the part of the royal supporters for a counter-revolution.

So the ‘Petrograd Soviet of workers and soldiers ’ decided to hand over the power to the Duma. Thus ended the first successful phase of 1917, i.e., the ‘February Revolution’, This was purely and primarily a mass movement, sudden and spontaneous. No political party or person had any major role behind it.

The people, the Duma members, and the Petrograd Garrison were the only instruments of this totally leaderless movement. The leaders rose to give shape to the future destiny of Russia only after the Provisional Government took the place vacated by the monarchy for good.

Question 9.
What is the Great October Revolution (November 1917) and what caused the October Revolution?
Answer:
The Russian Revolution broke out, in its second phase, in November 1917. As per the Russian calendar which was behind the international calendar by thirteen days it was October in Russia. So it is called the October Revolution As a revolution, it was monumental and unique. It brought into focus a new ideology and a new dictatorship.

The ideology was Marxism, modified by Lenin to suit Russian conditions. The dictatorship was the ‘dictatorship of the proletariat (workers and laborers)’. Karl Marx, who was bom in Germany and who developed his doctrine of socialism in England, became the prophet of Russia.

Causes Of The October Revolution, 1917 (The Bolshevik Revolution):
First World War and the problem of Peace:
The February Revolution had overthrown Tsarism. But it had not been able to solve certain fundamental issues. The Provisional Government set up by the Duma could neither continue the war for Russia nor could it withdraw Russia from the First World War. The soldiers of Russia were tired of war and defeats. Now they “refused to fight”.

The Russian army had ceased to function, for all practical purposes, after the overthrow of the Tsar. Many in Russia believed that it was a war in which Russia took part due to the wrong policies of the Tsar; now that the Ts&r was no more there, why should Russia suffer by continuing the war? But the Provisional Government could not find a suitable way out of the problem.

Organized political parties used this popular discontent with the Government. The Bolshevik Party of Lenin made it an issue for its revolution. Why should Russia fight the imperialist war, they questioned? They commanded full popular support for this cause. Thus the first c use of the October (or Bolshevik) Revolution centered around the problem of war.

Failure of the Bourgeois Ministry:
The second cause of the October Revolution was the failure of the leadership during February-October, 1917. The Provisional Government was formed by the middle-class (bourgeoisie) ofRussia. This bourgeois ministry was liberal but dependent upon the support of the socialists. Since 1905, Russia had come to have a revolutionary body called “the Soviet of Workers’ deputies.”

It continued as a parallel institution to the Provisional Government after February 1917. The Soviets lost no opportunity to criticize the Government over the latter’s failure. The Provisional Government became extremely unpopular. It came to be known as a ‘Government on sufferance and invited its Overthrow.

The problem of land:
The third cause of the Revolution was the problem of land. Though the peasants had been freed from their bondage to the. land-lords since 1861, they were unhappy because they were not allowed to own any land and had to also pay a heavy amount as the price of their liberty (called redemption dues).

The peasants were unhappy because there was a shortage of land and no ownership of them over the land they cultivated. Inspired by the poem of Nekrasov, they believed that tillers of the soil must become the owners of the land. They were, therefore, for a fresh distribution of land and the dissolution of large land holdings of the big land owners.

With the fall of the Tsar, these peasants now became an important factor in rural Russia No government could ignore them. But the Provisional Government did nothing for them. The peasants ’ disaffection was exploited by the Bolsheviks to their advantage in the October Revolution.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 History Unit 5 Long Answer Questions Part-1

Question 10.
What is ‘October’ or Bolshevik Revolution (7 November 1917) and state its results?
Answer:
The Bolsheviks had an armed guard, called the ‘Red guard’, numbering about 25,000. The number was too little against Government troops. The Bolsheviks won over the Petrograd garrison through its propaganda The Kerensky Government, unpopular due to the Bolshevik propaganda, was now defenseless and helpless Therefore, the Bolsheviks succeeded in over-running this government.

The Bolshevik Revolution began at 2 AM on November 7, 1917, their revolution by capturing the railways, banks, post and telegraph offices, and other government buildings. There was no resistance from the government, no opposition from any quarter to the Bolsheviks. Trotsky described the revolution as highly successful and almost bloodless.

He said, “There is no example in history of a revolutionary movement involving such gigantic masses being so bloodless.” But, without any opposition to it, the Revolution was one of the bloodiest. Yet, the Bolshevik Revolution was a signal triumph and Lenin captured power in Russia on the very day of the Revolution.

Results of the Bolshevik Revolution :
The Bolshevik Revolution is ‘great’ because of its results. These results were as significant for Russia as for the world at large. Firstly, Capitalism was overthrown in Russia. Russia became a dictatorship of the proletariat. It was the first government of its kind in the world. This dictatorship was a government of the proletariat consisting of peasants, soldiers, and industrial workers.

Secondly, all industrial establishments in Russia came to be nationalized. Their old owners were dispossessed and the Government became the owner and manager of all industrial and commercial establishments. Thirdly, all agricultural lands were nationalized. New committees of peasants came to be formed at the village level.

These were to not only allot land to farmers but look after agricultural production while protecting the interests of the farmers. Fourthly, the Soviets of workers came to be formed and these were given the charge of production and distribution. Thus a state of workers and peasants came to be formed. Marx developed his theory for an industrial society.

Lenin modified the theory to suit the agricultural and industrial set-up in Russia. Bolshevism, thus, stands for Marxism- Leninism. Fifthly, Lenin wanted no part in the 1 imperialist First World War. He wanted Russia to withdraw from the war. He had to sign a peace treaty with Germany. Germany dictated the terms of the treaty to Russia.

Though insulting to Russia, Lenin signed the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk with Germany in 1918. Russia thereby withdrew from the First World War. Lenin could now focus all attention on the internal reorganization of Russia. Sixthly, the Bolshevik government did not forgive its enemies inside Russia. After November 1917, the government started a ‘Red Terror’.

The deposed Tsar and his family members were killed in 1918. The opponents of the Bolsheviks called upon the ‘Allied Powers’ led by Britain and France to protect their life and property from the Bolshevik’s Red j Terror’. Seventhly, the Civil War in Russia came to be fought between the opponents and supporters of Bolshevism.

The former was led by Gen. Denikin and Admiral Kolchak, with the direct support of the foreign powers. The foreign powers did not want the Bolshevik experiment to succeed in Russia, because if it succeeds, it may infect them like a contagious disease. The foreign and Russian troops fought against the Bolshevik Red Army.

The Civil War continued for three years arid ended with success for Lenin and Bolshevik Russia. After the civil war, Lenin’s Russia came to be known by the new name of the USSR (Union of Soviet Socialist Republics). Lorain fondly ed that the example of the USSR would inspire the workers and peasants in other countries to start a series of national revolutions.

Eighthly, the Bolshevik Revolution came as an alarm to the world. After 1918, the countries of Europe as well as the USA came to stand as opposed to USSR. The world now witnessed a tug-of-war between Communist Russia and the capitalist countries. Communism came as a new ideology. Fear of Bolsheviks- a type of uprising in their own countries made every Government fearful.

Small countries in Europe and South America were the first to come under the spell of the Bolshevik ideas. Marx had given the slogan “Workers of the world unite you have nothing to lose except your chains.” This became the bible of poor workers everywhere throughout the world. Ninthly, Soviet Russia recovered economically within a short time. This was given as a credit to the Soviet system of nationalization of property and new methods of production and distribution there since 1918.

This came as an example to be followed by people from many countries. For them, it was a reality, though, in reality, it was an illusion. Communism was the enemy of democracy and this was highlighted by the military and economic steps of Lenin and Stalin. Hitler would describe communism as “a bluff, a comedy, a speculation, and a blackmail.” Gorbachev would realize the truth of it in the USSR in 1986.

Question 11.
What is the Treaty of Versailles?
Answer:
Retrospectively with the wisdom of hindsight, one could emphatically assert that the germs of the Second World War could already be seen in the Treaty of Versailles, signed in Paris. In their obsession to cripple Germany, the Alliance, France, and Great Britain in particular, encouraged the development of a revenge psychosis in Germany that needed an opportunity to break the shackles.

The Treaty of Versailles was a symbol of national humiliation for the Germans and it was logical that German nationalism would assert itself to free itself from the obligations of Versailles. It was evident that peace could prevail as long as the status quo of Paris was maintained but when Germany made gross violations of the status quo in 1939, war became inevitable.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 History Unit 5 Long Answer Questions Part-1

Question 12.
What are the features of the Weimar Republic and the rise of Hitler’s Nazi Party?
Answer:
The Allies, by redeeming Germany of the autocracy of King Kaizer William-H, had set up a republic in Germany known as the Weimar Republic. From the outset, however, the Weimer Republic was doomed to failure since it appeared to Germans to be a pliant tool in the hands of the Allies. It was denounced by the Nazi Party as the Weimar Jewish Republic, which more than anything else was responsible for the defeat of Germany.

A feeling soon grew that the Republic not only compromised German nationalism but also symbolized the betrayal of the Fatherland. In 1933, the Weimar Republic was ousted and its place was taken by the National Socialists better known as the Nazi Party of Adolf Hitler. Hitler’s rise to power in Germany paved the way for another global crisis.

Rise of Fascism :
Of the many ominous developments during the interwar period, one that truly convulsed European civilization was the birth and growth of fascism in Italy. The frustration of Italians not being able to extract concessions in Paris after their victory in the First World War led to the collapse of the parliamentary government in Italy.

Italians in their zeal for social and economic stability party promised everything to the Italians. The Fascist Party of Benito Mussolini was against parliamentary democracy and international peace and when in its zeal, it sought to destroy the balance of power in Europe, it invited the Second World War.

Question 13.
What is the Cold war? Its origin and initial actors?
Answer:
The cold war is characterized by a situation where there is neither a direct confrontation nor a lasting peace. It is a situation marked by mutual suspicion, jealousy, hostility, and rivalry. The term ‘war’ implies that a real war was actually going on but that war was fought not by ‘hot’ or nuclear weapons, but by ‘cold’ or conventional arms.

The two superpowers avoided a direct confrontation but met each other indirectly through their respective allies. A mistaken notion that has generally been accepted as a fact is that the cold war originated between the United States and the Soviet Union. Nothing could be more fallacious. The original players in the Cold war were Great Britain and the Soviet Union with the Americans playing the role of mediators.

Such a situation remained unchanged virtually till the end of World War II and the death of American President Franklin Delano Roosevelt. As long as Franklin Roosevelt was alive he thought in terms of a new world order where the Americans and Russians would cooperate for the maintenance of international peace and security.

The end of World War II saw the relegation of Great Britain to a distant background depending upon the United States for its survival and the death of Roosevelt brought Harry S. Truman as the new President of the United States. Unlike Roosevelt, Truman detested communism and the Soviet Union, just as much as British Prime Minister Winston Churchill did.

Roosevelt’s political acumen lay in pacifying both Churchill and Stalin, the Soviet Premier. But, Truman’s ascendence to the Presidency saw the Americans be the major opponents of the Russians and after 1945, the Americans replaced Great Britain as the major player in the cold war.

Different views on the cold war:
To trace the origins of the cold war, some historians believe that it started as early as 1917 when the Bolshevik party under VI Leninousted Czarist misrule from Russia after the October Revolution. The Bolshevik victory in Russia led to the establishment of communism which appeared to be a direct challenge to the capitalist world. Hence, to nip communism in the bud, a sustained effort was made by western powers, and therein lies the genesis of the cold war.

Another group of historians however believes that the cold war originated during the course of the Second World War when Churchill and Stalin met for the first time during the Teheran Conference of 1943. Whatever the timing of the cold war, it remains the most, complex political development of the 20th century. All international developments after 1945 took shape under the shadow of the cold war.

Evolving of Cold war in East Europe:
The basis of the cold war, in its initial phase undoubtedly centered on developments in East Europe. For centuries East and West had been struggling with each other for control of the huge area rich inhuman and industrial resources and one that was strategically vital to both sides, either to Russia as a buffer against the west or to Germany and France as a gateway for invasion of Russia.

Till almost 1940, East Europe had sided with the west. But when East Europe was devasted by the marauding Nazi troops, the Russians bore the brunt of the war and were finally successful in liberating East Europe. Russia after 1945 controlled East Europe and this crucial result of World War II destroyed the Grand Alliance between the United States, Great Britain, France, and the Soviet Union and gave birth to the Cold War.

The American view of Friendly East European Governments:
The West, with America leading the way, was unwilling to accept Russian domination of East Europe. Although the Anglo-Americans were willing to allow Stalin a major say in the politics of the region and realized that Russian security demanded friendly governments there, they were not prepared to abandon East Europe altogether.

The Americans had a mistaken notion that it was still possible to have East European governments that were both capitalistic but friendly to Russia The Russians on the other hand forcefully put forth their plea that a ‘friendly’ government in East Europe meant only a communist government.

British intervention in Greece starts the cold war:
The first move in the cold war was, however, made by Great Britain when British Prime Minister Churchill intervened in Greece with the help of British ground forces. Though Greece had been liberated by Soviet troops and the Russian troops won the admiration of the Greeks, Churchill could never think of giving up Greece for fear of losing the entire Mediterranean zone. Stalin for the time being allowed the British to move to Greece.

Russian countermove in Poland and Rumania:
But the brazen British action in Greece had profound Churchill and far-reaching consequences and as retaliation to this action, Stalin brought Poland into the Russian fold by according to recognizing the provisional Government there. Then it was the turn of Rumania. Vyshinsky, the Soviet Foreign Minister on February 27, 1945, visited Bucharest, the Rumanian capital, and demanded the dismissal of the coalition government.

On March 6, 1945, a communist-dominated Government was sworn in. Neither the Americans nor the British could raise any objection since the Soviet action in Poland and Romania was an answer to the British action in Greece. Thus the onset of the cold war led to the formal division of Europe and it was reflected in all parts of the world.

The turning point in Soviet-American Relations :
The real turning point in Russo-American relations came during the period between December 1944 and April 1945. It was during this period that the American ambassador to the Soviet Union, Harriman, brought about a drastic changeful his attitude toward the Russians. Till very recently an ardent proponent of close Russo-American ties, Harriman, ring March- April 1945 constantly advised the American foreign office to adopt a tough attitude towards the Russians.

According to him, the Russians had violated the spirit of the Yalta Conference of February 1945 to cooperate with the west for establishing a new world order, through their action in Rumania. Hence Harriman believed that the only way of making the Russians stick to the agreements made by them was to force them to do so.

Death of Roosevelt and Ascendence of Truman:
Another major factor was the death of Roosevelt and the entry of Harry S. Truman as the President of the United States. Truman was new to international diplomacy and personally, he had an intense dislike for communism and the Soviet Union. Whereas Roosevelt always tried to act as a mediator between extreme British and Soviet positions, Truman pushed aside Great Britain to make the United States the chief antagonist of the Soviet Union in the cold war.

Common Enemy collapsed after 1945:
A basic factor that must be home in mind was that there never was any cordiality in Russo-American relations. They had merely come closer during World War II since both found a common enemy in Hitler. With Hitler gone, the Grand Alliance between the East and the West which had been forged during the war, also collapsed.

UN making exposed differences:
The process of the U.N. making also contributed to the growing suspicion between the parties. Stalin, never a proponent of having a strong United Nations, demanded certain built-in devices in the UN charter that would make Soviet participation in the world body meaningful. Russian stubbornness led to the formulation ofthe ‘Veto’ formula in the Security Council ensuring that no issue could pass through the U without the approval of all the five permanent members of the Security Council.

Hard Stance by Americans:
President Truman’s hostility towards the Soviet Union was further demonstrated When he stopped the supply of loans to the Soviet Union. These loans had been promised to the Russians for their help during the war. The Russians had been expecting a large American post-war loan for the purpose of Reconstruction and this sudden stoppage at the end of the war in Europe convinced the Russians of American betrayal.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 History Unit 5 Long Answer Questions Part-1

Question 14.
What is the Truman Doctrine? States its criticism.
Answer:
The genesis of the Truman Doctrine: The American declaration of the cold war came about on March 12, 1947, when President Harry Truman went before a joint session of Congress to deliver a truly epochal speech in American history. President Truman was provoked by the British who shocked Washington by declaring that an economically burdened Britain could no longer sustain a pro-western government in Greece. Great Britain further warned that once they withdrew from Greece, communist guerillas there would receive help from their communist patrons in the Soviet Union which would probably seize control of Greece.

Greece would then gravitate within the Soviet orbit, and the position of neighboring Turkey which was already unstable would become untenable Iodine to the strategically vital eastern Mediterranean fell into Soviet hands with dangerous consequences for the western world. It was imperative, therefore, on the part of the United States as the champion of democracy to intervene in Greece and Turkey to not only save these countries from communist infiltration but also to safeguard western interests in the Mediterranean zone.

Enunciation of the Doctrine :
After hurried consultations with military and congressional leaders, President Truman outlined the situation in Greece and spelled out what was to become known as the Truman Doctrine. What he said in essence was “It must be the policy of the United States to support free peoples who are resisting attempted subjugation by armed minorities or by outside pressures.”

A bolder statement, far more elaborate in scope could be interpreted when he said “wherever aggression, direct or indirect, threatens the peace, the security of the United States was involved.” The President asked congress to appropriate $400 million for economic aid and military supplies for Greece and Turkey and to authorize the dispatch of American personnel to assist with reconstruction and to provide their armies with proper instruction. Thus the United States began the policy of containment and its initial implementation was to be witnessed in Greece and Turkey.

Justification of the Doctrine :
President Truman justified his position by emphasizing that Soviet expansionist efforts left the United States with no choice but to adopt a countervailing policy. It was further stated that anti-communism had never been a major American policy during the Second World War, but hostile Soviet behavior and words were the reasons for the gradual shift of American policy and public opinion from amity to enmity.

Truman declared that despite, the universalism of the Truman Doctrine, its application was intended to be specific and limited, not global. In other words, containment was to be implemented only where the Soviet state appeared to be expanding its power.

Criticism of the Doctrine :
Despite all the show of morality and democratic pretensions, the Truman Doctrine was far from being flawless. With all talk of democratic purposes, Truman Doctrine’s first application was to Greece and Turkey, neither of which was democratic. One had to shut off one’s reasoning capacity to call Greece of the day or Turkey “free” countries both had unpopular, fascist regimes against which the United States had so recently fought World War II.

Their strategic location was considered more important than their domestic nature. The doctrine had the impact of oversimplifying issues by conveniently dividing the world into two hostile camps – the one free and the other totalitarian and declared that every nation must now choose between the two. This was tantamount to drawing the battle lines.

Henceforward, American policy all over the world was geared toward defining this split – one who is not with me is against me. The United States firmly rejected the existence of a third and middle course and in its anxiety to isolate the Soviet bloc, included all reactionary, undemocratic, and unpopular regimes in the ‘free’ camp.

At home, the Trueman Doctrine came in for severe criticism. It was stated that the scheme would cost too much since communism could not be fought with dollars. Rich though America was she would bankrupt herself by helping bankrupt governments all over the world. Americans by poking their noses into the internal affairs of foreign governments might unite the world against them.

Although Truman had been careful not to mention Soviet Russia by name, there could be no doubt that he was aiming his doctrine at her, with the imminent danger of provoking her into war. Nevertheless, the Truman Doctrine was approved in the House by 297 to 107 and in the Senate by 67 to 23, on May 15, 1947.

The Truman Doctrine was of incalculable significance. Through it, the United States seized the tactical offensive in the cold war to contain communism, Although limited for the present to Greece and Turkey the new policy was actually general in scope and led by dire steps to tire vastly more important Marshall Plan and the North Atlantic Pact.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 History Unit 5 Long Answer Questions Part-1

Question 15.
What is the Marshall Plan?
Answer:
The genesis of the Marshall Plan :
The commitment to Greece and Turkey was only the beginning of the first act under the American project of containing Soviet expansion; Soon, however, the United States realized that aid for only Greece and Turkey was quite inadequate. The war in Europe had devastated the economies of all the countries and western Europe particularly was not making the necessary economic recovery.

The deepest fear was that the Soviet Union would be able to exploit Europe’s post-war economic collapse and if the situation was allowed to prevail, the communists would probably seize control of Italy and France.

American and European interests were interlinked:
The collapse of Europe posed once again the basic question of whether Europe was vital to U.S. security. The answer was obvious since America’s two previous interventions had been made to protect Europe. During both world wars, the United States had been drawn by Germany and both wars had been fought to uphold democracy in Europe.

Europe’s vital importance became quite evident since it ranked second only to the United States in its potential power – in industry, productivity, skilled manpower, scientists, and technicians. If these vital assets moved toward the Soviet side the strategic military balance would swing sharply toward the Russians and U.S. security would be endangered.

Given its huge potential and its strategic geographic position, it became apparent that Europe’s security was indeed inseparable from U.S. security. Moreover, the United States could never allow the Soviet Union the control the Western approaches to the Atlantic. Hence it was imperative for the U.S. to find a way to help Europe recover.

With Europe on the verge of not only economic ruin, but also a complete social and political breakdown, everything seemed to force it into dependence upon it. America Almost every item needed for reconstruction like wheat, cotton, coal, sulfur, sugar, machinery, and trucks, could be obtained in sufficient quantities only from the United States.

Tragically enough, Europe in 1947 had lost her capacity to buy. The only cure for Europe’s sick state was a massive injection of dollars since only a tremendous program of economic aid could restore Europe’s economy and enable it to surpass its prewar agricultural and industrial production.

Enunciation of Marshall Plan :
To come to Europe’s rescue, Secretary of State George C. Marshall announced a policy in his address at Harvard University on June 5, 1947, which eclipsed the Truman Doctrine in importance. The essence of his speech was that, if the nations of Europe would get together and devise far-visioned plans for economic recovery, concentrate on self-help and mutual assistance and present to Washington a specific statement of their needs, the United States would support them with financial help so far as it may be practical.

In “other words, American aid to Europe was made conditional upon economic cooperation among the European states and it put the burden of initiative on Europe’s shoulders. However, it soon became apparent that the Marshall scheme, unlike the Truman Doctrine which aimed at military aid or temporary relief to Greece and Turkey, was an all-inclusive plan looking toward long-range rehabilitation of Europe.

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CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 3 Social Institutions Objective Questions

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Solutions Unit 3 Social Institutions Objective Questions.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class Sociology Unit 3 Social Institutions Objective Questions

Multiple Choice Questions With Answers

Question 1.
A patrilineal or matrilineal kin group whose members are assumed to have a common ancestor but who do not know their exact genealogical relationship with one another is known as:
(a) Kingship t
(b) Family
(c) Clan
(d) Marriage
Answer:
(a) Clan

Question 2.
The term family derived from which of the following word:
(a) Roman word Famulus
(b) Latin word Logos
(c) Greek word Socius
Answer:
(a) Roman word Famulus.

Question 3.
Which are not secondary kin?
(a) Sister’s husband
(b) Brother’s wife
(c) Wife’s brother
(d) Wife of brother-in-law
Answer:
(d) Wife of brother-in-law

Question 4.
Which one is the Indian type of family?
(a) Consanguinous
(b) Conjugal
(c) Polyandrous
(d) Matrilineal
Answer:
(a) Consanguinous

Question 5.
Which of the following is not primary kin?
(a) Uncle
(b) Brother
(c) Mother
(d) Father
Answer:
(a) Uncle

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 3 Social Institutions Objective Questions

Question 6.
Which among the following is tertiary kin?
(a) Wife of brother-in-law
(b) Uncle
(c) Brother’s son
(d) Father
Answer:
(a) Wife of brother-in-law

Question 7.
The mle of residence generally followed in society is ____________.
(a) Matrilocal
(b) Bio-local
(c) Patriloeal
(d) Avuneulocal
Answer:
(c) Patriloeal

Question 8.
Who classify functions and families into six categories.
(a) Green
(b) Iravati Karve
(c) Maclver
(d) Ogbum and Ninkoff
Answer:
(d) Ogbum and Ninkoff

Question 9.
Which among the following is tertiary kin?
(a) Father
(b) Uncle (mamu)
(c) Brother ’s son
(d) Wife of brother-in-law
Answer:
(d) Wife of brother-in-law

Question 10.
The family is an aggarian society is ________.
(a) Matriarchal
(b) Patriarchal
(c) Nuclear
(d) Matrilocal
Answer:
(b) Patriarchal

Question 11.
Family is a ________.
(a) Secondary group
(b) Reference Group
(c) Primary Group
(d) Outgroup
Answer:
(c) Primary Group

Question 12.
The word family has come from the word famulus which is a _________.
(a) Roman word
(b) Greek word
(c) French word
(d) Latinword
Answer:
(a) Roman word

Question 13.
Family is an _________.
(a) Kinship group
(b) Political group
(c) Economic Group
(d) Religious group
Answer:
(a) Kinship group

Question 14.
To constitute a family the essential characteristic is _________.
(a) Sense of unity
(b) Mutual help
(c) Specific object
(d) A form of marriage
Answer:
(d) A form of marriage

Question 15.
The family originated when _________.
(a) Promiscuous relations between him and women prevailed.
(b) Men come out of the primitive stage.
(c) Men felt the need for procreation.
(d) The lord created women.
Answer:
(c) Men felt the need for procreation.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 3 Social Institutions Objective Questions

Question 16.
Which of the following statement is not hue?
(a) Family is not found among nomadic tribes.
(b) Family is both an association and an institution.
(c) Family is a universal group.
(d) Family is the nucleus of all groups.
Answer:
(a) Family is not found among nomadic tribes.

Question 17.
A matriarchal family is where in _________.
(a) Authority of the family rests on the father.
(b) Marriage relations are permanent.
(c) Descent is reckoned through the mother.
(d) All children succeed in the property.
Answer:
(c) Descent is reckoned through the mother.

Question 18.
A patriarchal family is where in _________.
(a) Marriage relations are transitional.
(b) The husband goes to live in the home of his wife.
(c) All the members share equal authority.
(d) Descent is reckoned through the father.
Answer:
(d) Descent is reckoned through the father.

Question 19.
Out of the following which one is not a basis of the classification of the family?
(a) Ancestry
(b) Structure
(c) Religion
(d) Residence
Answer:
(c) Religion

Question 20.
A family may be classified on the basis of blood relationships in which type.
(a) Nuclear of extended.
(b) Conjugal or consanguineous
(c) Matrilocalorpatrilocal
(d) Matrilineal or patrilineal
Answer:
(b) Conjugal or consanguineous

Question 21.
Which one of the following is the essential function of the family?
(a) Socialization of the child.
(b) Transmission of culture
(c) Stable satisfaction Of sex ned.
(d) Procreation and rearing of children.
Answer:
(c) Stable satisfaction Of sex ned.

Question 22.
Which one of the following is the important role played by the family in society?
(a) Contributes to the economic growth of society.
(b) Provides recreation.
(c) Satisfies sex needs.
(d) It exercises great influence on the personality of the individual.
Answer:
(d) It exercises great influence on the personality of the individual.

Question 23.
Which one is found in a modem family?
(a) Position of the mother is inferior.
(b) There is decreased control of marriage bonds.
(c) The children have less freedom.
(d) Father dominates family.
Answer:
(b) There is decreased control of marriage bonds.

Question 24.
Indian family system is based on which are of the following.
(a) Matrilineal descent.
(b) Patrilineal descent.
Answer:
(b) Patrilineal descent.

Question 25.
Which one is not a characteristic of the joint family?
(a) Small size
(b) Common Religion
(c) Joint property
(d) Common occupation
Answer:
(a) Small size

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 3 Social Institutions Objective Questions

Question 26.
The bond of blood is known as _________.
(a) Consanguineous kinship
(b) Attinal kinship
Answer:
(a) Consanguineous kinship

Question 27.
Out of the following which is not a feature of the modern family?
(a) Laxity in sexual relationships.
(b) Economic freedom.
(c) Subordination of wife.
(d) Declining influence in religion.
Answer:
(c) Subordination of wife.

Question 28.
Which of the following is an example of secondary kin?
(a) Sister
(b) Brother
(c) Uncle
(d) Wife of brother-in-law
Answer:
(c) Uncle

Question 29.
Which of the following factor helps in the disintegration of the family system in India?
(a) Women franchise
(b) Women’s Education
(c) Industrialisation
(d) Social Legislation
Answer:
(c) Industrialisation

Question 30.
The term education is derived from which of the following word?
(a) Greek word Pedagogy
(b) Sas word to know
(c) Latin word Educatum
Answer:
(c) Latin word Educatum

Question 31.
Education is the realization of self which is the propounder of view.
(a) Pamini
(b) Kautilya
(c) Sankaracharya
(d) GuruNanak
Answer:
(c) Sankaracharya

Question 32.
Education makes man self-reliant and selfless. Who is the propounder of view?
(a) Upanisad
(b) Yaganavalkya
(c) Kautilya
(d) Rigveda
Answer:
(d) Rigveda

Question 33.
Which of the following educational function of a family?
(a) Providing vocational education
(b) Development of knowledge
(c) Social development
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 34.
“By education, I mean an all-round drawing out of the best in child and man body, mind and spirit”. Who said this?
(a) Sri Aurobindo
(b) Swami Vivekananda
(c) R.N.Tagore
(d) M.K.Gandhi
Answer:
(d) M.K.Gandhi

Question 35.
The role of the family in education has been _________.
(a) Belongingness
(b) Independence
(c) Education Materials
(d)All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 3 Social Institutions Objective Questions

Question 36.
Which of the following educational functions of school?
(a) Providing vocational education.
(b) All-round development of the individual.
(c) Character development
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 37.
“Human Society” who write this book?
(a) K. Davis
(b) Burgess
(c) Locke
(d) Maclver
Answer:
(a) K. Davis

Question 38.
Which of the following educational functions of the state?
(a) Formulation of the curriculum.
(b) Establishing a new school.
(c) Controlling educational institutions.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 39.
Who defines kinship as a cluster of social relations based on such factors as biological ties, marriage, and legal rules regarding adoption, guardianship, and the like”.
(a)K. Davis
(b) Maclver
(c) Mardock
(d) Smclser
Answer:
(c) Mardock

Question 40.
How many types of kinship are divided?
(a) Four
(b) Three
(c) Two
(d) Five
Answer:
(d) Three

Question 41.
Education is a due manifestation of the divine perfection already existing in man is defined by _________.
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Plato
(c) Pandit Gopabandhu
(d) Vivekananda
Answer:
(d) Vivekananda

Question 42.
Education is the creation of a sound mind in a sound body is defined by _________.
(a) Plato
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Aristotle
(d) Vivekananda
Answer:
(c) Aristotle

Question 43.
The term education is the combination and two words E and DUCO E – means – and DUCO means:
(a) Educare out of to lead.
(b) Educare to lead out of.
(c) All of the above.
Answer:
(c) All of the above.

Question 44.
Education as a bipolar process has been advocated by _________.
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Adam Son
(c) John Dewey
(d) Adams
Answer:
(d) Adams

Question 45.
Advocates education as a unipolar process _________.
(a) Admas
(b) Sir John Adamson
(c) John Dewey
Answer:
(a) Adams

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 3 Social Institutions Objective Questions

Question 46.
What is education correspond to:
(a) Aims of education
(b) Agency of Education
(c) Functions of education
(d) Meaning of Education
Answer:
(c) Functions of education

Question 47.
Advocates education as a continuous reconstruction and integration of activities and experiences.
(a) Tagore
(b) Rousseau
(c) John Dewey
(d) Gopabandhu
Answer:
(c) John Dewey

Question 48.
Who said the economy is one social superstructure?
(a) Marx
(b) Weber
(c) Durkheim
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Marx

Question 49.
Who viewed the economy as one of a number of social institutions?
(a) Manx
(b) Weber
(c) Durkheim
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Durkheim

Question 50.
Who viewed the economy is part as an extension of religious belief.
(a) Marx
(b) Weber
(c) Durkheim
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Weber

Question 51.
Who has written ‘Communist Manifests’?
(a) Marx
(b) Weber
(c) Durkheim
(d) Plato
Answer:
(a) Marx

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 3 Social Institutions Objective Questions

Question 52.
Who has written the book “Division of Labour in Society”?
(a) Weber
(b) Durkheim
(c) Plato
(d) Marx
Answer:
(b) Durkheim

True / False Type Questions

Question 1.
The term family has been derived from the Greek word Famulus.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
The term family has been derived from the Roman word Famulus.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
When authority is vested in the oldest male member it is called a patrilineal family.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
When authority is vested in the oldest male member it is called a patrilineal family.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
A polygamy is an ideal form of family.
Answer:
False

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 3 Social Institutions Objective Questions

Question 6.
Monogamy is an ideal form of family.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
A joint family consists of a husband, wife, and unmarried children.
Answer:
False

Question 8.
A nuclear family consists of a husband, wife, and unmarried children.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
Universality and emotional basis are two general characteristics of a family.
Answer:
False

Question 10.
Universality and emotional basis are two distinctive features of the family.
Answer:
True

Question 11.
Reproduction is one of the non-essential functions of the family.
Answer:
False

Question 12.
Reproduction is one of the essential functions of the family.
Answer:
True

Question 13.
K. Davis opines family performed six important functions.
Answer:
False

Question 14.
Ogburn and Nimkoff opine family performed six important functions.
Answer:
True

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 3 Social Institutions Objective Questions

Question 15.
On the basis of the degree of relationship, kins are two types.
Answer:
False

Question 16.
On the basis of the degree of relationship, kins are three types.
Answer:
True

Question 17.
When ancestry or descent is determined on the father line it is called a matrilinear family.
Answer:
False

Question 18.
When descent or ancestry is determined on the father line it is called a patrilineal family.
Answer:
True

Question 19.
The bond of marriage is called affinal kinship.
Answer:
True

Question 20.
The bond of marriage is called consanguineous kinship.
Answer:
False

Question 21.
Close, direct and near relations are called secondary kins.
Answer:
False

Question 22.
Close, direct and near relations are called primary kins.
Answer:
True

Question 23.
Maclver writes the book “Human Society”.
Answer:
False

Question 24.
Kinsley Davis writes the book “Human Society”.
Answer:
True

Question 25.
Family is one of the most important social units.
Answer:
False

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 3 Social Institutions Objective Questions

Question 26.
The family is one of the most important biological units.
Answer:
True

Question 27.
Family is one of the most universal social processes.
Answer:
False

Question 28.
Family is one of the most universal social groups.
Answer:
True

Question 29.
Family is the center of all social organization.
Answer:
False

Question 30.
Family is the nucleus of all social organizations.
Answer:
True

Question 31.
The functions of the family may be both permanent and temporary.
Answer:
False

Question 32.
The nature of family may be both permanent and temporary.
Answer:
True

Question 33.
The nuclear family is large in size.
Answer:
False

Question 34.
The extended family is large in size.
Answer:
True

Question 35.
The family in which after marriage husband comes to reside in the family of her wife is known as a patrilocal family.
Answer:
False

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 3 Social Institutions Objective Questions

Question 36.
The family in which after marriage husband comes to reside in the family of her wife is known as a matrilocal family.
Answer:
True

Question 37.
The matrilocal family is just the opposite of the patrilineal family.
Answer:
False

Question 38.
The matrilocal family is just the opposite of a patrilineal family.
Answer:
True

Question 39.
Socialization is the most important characteristic of a family.
Answer:
False

Question 40.
Socialization is the most important function of a family.
Answer:
True

Question 41.
Family as a secondary social group.
Answer:
False

Question 42.
Family is a primary social group.
Answer:
True

Question 43.
Kingsley Davis essential and non-essential functions of the family.
Answer:
False

Question 44.
Maclver essential and non-essential functions of the family.
Answer:
True

Question 45.
The Kingship relationship established by family is known as affinal kinship.
Answer:
False

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 3 Social Institutions Objective Questions

Question 46.
The kinship relationship established by marriage is known as affinal kinship.
Answer:
True

Question 47.
Maclver identified six important bases of kinship.
Answer:
False

Question 48.
H. M. Johnson identified six important bases of kinship.
Answer:
True

Question 49.
Education is the socialization of the self.
Answer:
False

Question 50.
Education is the realization of self.
Answer:
True

Question 51.
Education is the process of living through a continuous construction of experiences.
Answer:
False

Question 52.
Education is the process of living through a continuous reconstruction of experiences.
Answer:
True

Question 53.
Education is a one-polar process.
Answer:
False

Question 54.
Education is a bi-polar process.
Answer:
True

Question 55.
Sociology is the transmission of life from the living to the living.
Answer:
False

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 3 Social Institutions Objective Questions

Question 56.
Education is the transmission of life from living to living.
Answer:
True

Question 57.
Education is the construction of a sound mind in a sound body.
Answer:
False

Question 58.
Education is the creation of a sound mind in a sound body.
Answer:
True

Question 59.
Education is a slow process.
Answer:
False

Question 60.
Education is a lifelong process.
Answer:
True

Question 61.
Marx claims that social and political structures are divided from the economic means of production.
Answer:
True

Question 62.
The social superstructure is not the economic base of society for Marx.
Answer:
False

Question 63.
The class which is the ruling material force of society is at the same time its ruling intellectual force.
Answer:
True

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 3 Social Institutions Objective Questions

Question 64.
Marx claims that communication opposes the power of oppression.
Answer:
True

Question 65.
Marx, Weber, and Durkheim are economists.
Answer:
False

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CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 5 Colonial Cities Objective Questions

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Solutions Unit 5 Colonial Cities Objective Questions.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class History Unit 5 Colonial Cities Objective Questions

Multiple Choice Questions with Answers

Question 1.
During which time the pre-colonial town did grow?
(a) Mughal
(b) Maratha
(c) English
(d) French
Answer:
(a) Mughal

Question 2.
Which among the following is a pre-colonial city?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Madras
(c) Bombay
(d) Lahore
Answer:
(d) Lahore

Question 3.
Which town of the South was famous for trade and commerce during the Medieval period?
(a) Walter
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Madurai
(d) Bangalore
Answer:
(c) Madurai

Question 4.
Where did the Portuguese establish their colony in India?
(a) Panaji
(b) Madras
(c) Pondicherry
(d) Musulipattanam
Answer:
(a) Panaji

Question 5.
Where did the French establish their colony in India?
(a) Madras
(b) Panaji
(c) Pondicherry
(d) Musulipattanam
Answer:
(c) Pondicherry

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 5 Colonial Cities Objective Questions

Question 6.
Where the Dutch settle in India?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Madras
(c) Pondicherry
(d) Musulipattanam.
Answer:
(d) Musulipattan

Question 7.
In which city the British established their first colony in India?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Madras
(c) Bombay
(d) Pondicherry
Answer:
(b) Madras

Question 8.
In which year railway was introduced in India?
(a) 1825
(b) 1850
(c) 1852
(d) 1853
Answer:
(d) 1853

Question 9.
At the time of the census starting who was the Viceroy of India?
(a) Lord Ripon
(b) Lord Curzon
(c) Lord Bentik
(d) Lord Canning
Answer:
(a) Lord Ripon

Question 10.
From which year census in India for ten years began?
(a) 1870
(b) 1853
(c) 1857
(d) 1881
Answer:
(d) 1881

Question 11.
What was the name of the fort built by the British at Calcutta?
(a) Fort George
(b) Fort William
(c) Fort St.George
(d) Fort Panjim
Answer:
(b) Fort William

Question 12.
Where Fort George was situated?
(a) Madras
(b) Calcutta
(c) Bombay
(d) Pondicherry
Answer:
(a) Madras

Question 13.
Name of the fort built by the British at Bombay?
(a) Fort William
(b) Fort Augustine
(c) Fort Panjim
(d) Fort George
Answer:
(d) Fort George

Question 14.
Name of the European settlement during the British period around the fort?
(a) George Town
(b) White Town
(c) Fort Town
(d) Black Town
Answer:
(b) White Town

Question 15.
For what factory, Calcutta was famous?
(a) cotton
(b) Leather
(c) Jute
(d) Iron
Answer:
(c) Jute

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 5 Colonial Cities Objective Questions

Question 16.
At first, where did the British establish Hill Station?
(a) Simia
(b) Mount Abu
(c) Kulu-Manali
(d) Darjeeling
Answer:
(a) Simia

Question 17.
In which year Simia Hill Station was established?
(a) 1816
(b) 1818
(c) 1835
(d) 1876
Answer:
(b) 1818

Question 18.
In which place of Sikkim, the British could establish a hill station?
(a) DarjeeLmg
(b) Sikkim
(c) Simia
(d) Manati
Answer:
(a) Darjeeling

Question 19.
Which British Governor-general built buildings for Government offices and his own residence at Calcutta?
(a) Lord Willim Bentïck
(b) Lord Clive
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) Lord Hastings
Answer:
(c) Lord Wellesley

Question 20.
Where Victoria Memorial Hall situated in India?
(a) Madras
(b) Pune
(c) Delhi
(d) Calcutta
Answer:
(d) Calcutta

Question 21.
Victorial Memorial was established during which Viceroy time?
(a) LordRippon
(b) Lord Curzon
(c) Lord Canning
(d) Lord Willim Bentick
Answer:
(b) Lord Curzon

Question 22.
Where is St. Paul Cathedral Located?
(a) Bombay
(b) Madras
(c) Calcutta
(d) Goa
Answer:
(c) Calcutta

Question 23.
Which architecture of Bombay is built in the style of Big Ben of London?
(a) Writers Building
(b) Rajabai Tower
(c) Victorial Terminus
(d) Fort William
Answer:
(b) Rajabai Tower

Question 24.
In the Latin language which city is regarded as the ‘most famous city’ of India?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Madras
(c) Bombay
(d) Lahore
Answer:
(c) Bombay

Question 25.
Which architecture was built in order to welcome King George and Queen Mary?
(a) Mount Mary Church
(b) Fort St. George
(c) Gateway of India
(d) Victorial Terminus
Answer:
(c) Gateway of India

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 5 Colonial Cities Objective Questions

Question 26.
By whose direction, victoria was built?
(a) George Wettete
(b) F.W. Stevens
(c) William Forbes
(d) George Gilbert
Answer:
(b) F.W Stevens

Question 27.
Which building of Madras (Chennai) is a fine example of the neoclassical style of colonial architecture?
(a) Rippon building
(b) Thomas Mount Church
(c) Madras High Court
(d) Fort St. George
Answer:
(a) Rippon building

Question 28.
As per the letter of Queen Victoria which High Court of India was built?
(a) Bombay High Court
(b) Calcutta High Court
(c) Madras High Court
(d) Delhi High Court
Answer:
(c) Madras High Court

Question 29.
Who had told – ‘Odia is not an independent language’.
(a) R.L. Mitra
(b) R.C. Majumdar
(c) Kanti Chandra Bhattacharya
(d) Gouri Shankar Ray
Answer:
(c) Kanti Chandra Bhattacharya

Question 30.
In which year Ravenshaw College was established?
(a) 1803
(b) 1806
(c) 1867
(d) 1868
Answer:
(d) 1868

Question 31.
Who had established the printing press at Cuttack?
(a) Bichitrananda Das
(b) Gouri Shankar- Ray
(c) Fakir Mohan
(d) Gangadhar Meher
Answer:
(a) Bichitrananda Das

Question 32.
In which year printing press was established at Cuttack in Odisha?
(a) 1829
(b) 1866
(c) 1869
(d) 1876
Answer:
(b) 1866

Question 33.
Magazine ‘Utkal Dipika’ was published by the editorship of whom?
(a) Fakir Mohan
(b) Gangadhan Meher
(c) Bichitrananda Das
(d) Gouri Shankar Ray
Answer:
(d) Gouri Shankar Ray

Question 34.
Who introduced the Hindi language in Sambalpur?
(a) Lord Curzon
(b) Andrew Frezan
(c) Major Impey
(d) Dr. Hansan
Answer:
(b) Andrew Frezan

Question 35.
By whom ‘Sambalpur Hitaisini’ was edited?
(a) Brajamohan Pattnaik
(b) Gangadhar Meher
(c) Dharanidhar Mishra
(d) Nilamani Bidyaratna
Answer:
(d) Nilamani Bidyaratna

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 5 Colonial Cities Objective Questions

Question 36.
Who influenced Lord Curzon to visit Odisha?
(a) Gopabandhu Das
(b) Krushna Chandra Narayan Deo
(c) Madhusudan Das
(d) Gouri Shankar Ray
Answer:
(c) Madhusudan Das

Question 37.
Under whose leadership ‘Utkal Hitabadini Sabha’ was formed at Berhampur?
(a) Curzon
(b) Dr. Hansan
(c) Wiliam Mohanty
(d) Malati Devi
Answer:
(c) Wiliam Mohanty

Question 38.
In which year Rishley circular was published?
(a) 1902
(b) 1903
(c) 1904
(d) 1905
Answer:
(b) 1903

Question 39.
In which year Sambalpur detached from the central province and became a part of the Odisha Division?
(a) 1903
(b) 1904
(c) 1905
(d) 1906
Answer:
(c) 1905

Question 40.
In which year Utkal Union conference was formed?
(a) 1890
(b) 1899
(c) 1905
(d) 1903
Answer:
(d) 1903

Question 41.
Bihar Odisha province was created in
(a) 1910
(b) 1911
(c) 1912
(d) 1916
Answer:
(d) 1913

Question 42.
In which year the separate province was formed?
(a) 1932
(b) 1934
(c) 1935
(d) 1936
Answer:
(d) 1936

Question 43.
Who went from Odisha to raise the question of the formation of Odisha as a separate province in the first Round table Conference held at London in 1930?
(a) Baikunthanath Dey
(b) Krushna Chandra Narayan Deo
(c) Sri Ram Chandra Bhaja Deo
(d) Birakishore Dev
Answer:
(b) Krushna Chandra Narayan Deo

Question 44.
Which committee gave the final report to make Cuttack the capital of Odisha?
(a) Hubback Committee
(b) Philip-Duff Committee
(c) O’Donnell Committee
(d) Joint Parliamentary Committee
Answer:
(a) Hubback Committee

Question 45.
Who was the First Prime Minister of Odisha?
(a) Baikunthanath Dey
(b) Sri Ram Chandra Bhanja Deo
(c) Krusha Chandra Narayan
(d) Birakishore Dev
Answer:
(b) Sri Ram Chandra Bhanja Deo

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 5 Colonial Cities Objective Questions

Question 46.
Who was the first Governor of Odisha?
(a) Ravenshaw Saheb
(b) Barlo
(c) Austin Hubback
(d) Hansan
Answer:
(c) Austin Hubback

Question 47.
In which village was Madhu Babu born?
(a) kheras
(b) Salepur
(c) Padmapur
(d) Satyabhamapur
Answer:
(d) Satyabhamapur

Question 48.
In which year ‘Utkal Sabha’ was formed?
(a) 1878
(b) 1880
(c) 1885
(d) 1904
Answer:
(a) 1878

Question 49.
When the Utkal Union Conference (Utkal Sammilani) was formed?
(a) 1866
(b) 1885
(c) 1888
(d) 1903
Answer:
(d) 1903

Question 50.
Who had established the Utkal Tannery?
(a) Madhu Babu
(b) Gopabandhu Das
(c) Rama Devi
(d) Malati Devi
Answer:
(a) Madhu Babu

Question 51.
When was the ‘Odisha Tennery Bill’ introduced in Bihar-Odisha Legislative Council?
(a) 1900
(b) 1911
(c) 1912
(d) 1913
Answer:
(d) 1913

Question 52.
Who is known as the ‘Gem of Utkal’ (Utkal Mani)?
(a) Madhu babu
(b) Gopabandhu
(c) Krushna Chandra Dev
(d) Gouri Shankar
Answer:
(b) Gopabandhu

Question 53.
Who has established the Open Air Middle English School at Satyabadi?
(a) Madhu Babu
(b) Fakir Mohan
(c) Gopabndhu
(d) Rama Devi
Answer:
(c) Gopabndhu

Question 54.
Who was the founder of the newspaper ‘Samaj’?
(a) Gopabandhu Das
(b) Acharya Harihar
(c) Malati Devi
(d) Madhusiidan Das
Answer:
(a) Gopabandhu Das

Question 55.
who was the first President of the Utkal Pradesli Committee?
(a) Acharya Harihar
(b) Krupasindhu Mishra
(c) Gopabandhu Das
(d) Dr. Ekram Rasool
Answer:
(c) Gopabandhu Das

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 5 Colonial Cities Objective Questions

Question 56.
Who composed ‘Bandira Atmakatha’ (Poems of the Prison)?
(a) Radhanath Roy
(b) Madhusudan Das
(c) Gopabandhu Das
(d) Malati Devi
Answer:
(c) Gopabandhu Das

Question 57.
In which year the session of the Utkal Union Conference was held at Paralakhemundi?
(a) 1902
(b) 1903
(c) 1912
(d) 1914
Answer:
(d) 1914

Question 58.
The Bidyadharpur Rice Research Institute was introduced by whose effort?
(a) Gopabandhu
(b) Madhu Babu
(c) Krushna Chandra Gajapati
(d) Malati Devi
Answer:
(c) Krushna Chandra Gajapati

Question 59.
From Odisha who participated in the first Round Table Conference at London?
(a) Madhu Babu
(b) Krushna Chandra Gajpati
(c) Gopabandhu Das
(d) Rama Devi
Answer:
(b) Krushna Chandra Gajpati

Question 60.
Who was given the title ‘Meherbani-i-Dostan’?
(a) Krushna Chandra Gajpati
(b) Madhu Babu
(c) Fakir Mohan
(d) Gangadhar Meher
Answer:
(a) Krushna Chandra Gajpati

Question 61.
Who was the husband of Rama Devi?
(a) Gopabandhu Das
(b) Gopabandhu Choudhury
(c) Manmohan Chaudhury
(d) Bhagirathi Mohapatra
Answer:
(b) Gopabandhu Choudhury

Question 62.
In which Ashram of Jagatsinghpur did Rama Devi stay?
(a) Sevaghar
(b) Alakashram
(c) Anakhia Ashram
(d) Delanga Ashram
Answer:
(b) Alakashram

Question 63.
What is the name of the Ashram where Rama Devi stayed at Bari?
(a) Kujibar Ashram
(b) Alakashram
(c) Sebaghar
(d) Anakhia Ashram
Answer:
(c) Sebaghar

Question 64.
Name of the woman of Odisha who gets an award from Jamunalal Baj aj foundation?
(a) Rama Devi
(b) Malati Devi
(c) Sarala Devi
(d) Kokila Devi
Answer:
(a) Rama Devi

Question 65.
While reading at Banki School, Sarala Devi was inspired by her love for the motherland.
(a) Laxmi Bai
(b) Suka Dei
(c) Ahalya Bai
(d) Durga Vati
Answer:
(b) Suka Dei

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 5 Colonial Cities Objective Questions

Question 66.
What was the name of the husband of Sarala Devi?
(a) Bhagirathi Mohapatra
(b) Naba Krushna Choudhury
(c) Gopabandhu Das
(d) Gopabandhu Choudhury
Answer:
(a) Bhagirathi Mohapatra

Question 67.
What was the name of the center which was opened by the efforts of Sarala Devi to train Satyagrahis?
(a) Karma Mandir
(b) Udyog Mandir
(c) Jana Mandir
(d) Swaraj Mandir
Answer:
(b) Udyog Mandir

Question 68.
In which Ashram Malati Devi was staying?
(a) Alakashram
(b) Sebaghar
(c) Anakhia Ashram
(d) Nemalo Ashram
Answer:
(c) Anakhia Ashram

Question 69.
Name of the lady of Odisha who attended the Karachi Session of India National Congress.
(a) Kama Devi
(b) Malati Devi
(c) Kokila Devi
(d) Sarala Devi
Answer:
(b) Malati Devi

Question 70.
Who established‘Navajeevan Mandal’at Angul?
(a) Malati Devi
(b) Rama Devi
(c) Sarala Devi
(d) Kokila Devi
Answer:
(a) Malati Devi

Question 71.
Who edited a Magazine named ‘Krusaka’ (farmer)?
(a) Gopabandhu Das
(b) Gourishankar Ray
(c) Malati Devi
(d) Rama Devi
Answer:
(c) Malati Devi

Question 72.
With Mahatma Gandhi, Malati Devi traveled to which area to pacify the communal riot?
(a) Cuttak
(b) Surat
(c) Calcutta
(d) Noakhali
Answer:
(d) Noakhali

Question 73.
Which lady freedom fighter was inspired by Vinoba Babe and actively participated in Bhoodan Movement in Odisha?
(a) Kokila Devi
(b) Sarala Devi
(c) Malati Devi
(d) Rama Devi
Answer:
(c) Malati Devi

Question 74.
Name of the husband of Malati Devi.
(a) Gopabandu Das
(b) Nabakrushna Choudhury
(c) Bhagirathi Mohapatra
(d) Madhusudan Das
Answer:
(b) Nabakrushna Choudhury

Question 75.
By whose proposal, the ‘Constituent Assembly’ was formed?
(a) Risely Circular
(b) Cabinet Mission
(c) Crips
(d) O’Donnell Committee
Answer:
(b) Cabinet Mission

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 5 Colonial Cities Objective Questions

Question 76.
Where the meeting of the Constituent Assembly took place?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Madras
(c) Bombay
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(d) Delhi

Question 77.
Who was the first President of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) B. R. Ambedkar
(b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Sachidananda Sinha
(d) Rajendra Prasad
Answer:
Sachidananda Sinha

Question 78.
Who is regarded as the founder of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
(b) B. R. Ambedkar

Question 79.
When was the Constituent Assembly convened?
(a) 9 December 1946
(b) 27 December 1949
(c) 26 January 1950
(d) 9 March 1948
Answer:
(a) 9 December 1946

Question 80.
What was the desire of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Establishment of Democracy
(b) Establishment of Diarchy
(c) Establishment of Monarchy
(d) Establishment of Nazism
Answer:
(a) Establishment of Democracy

Question 81.
What is the type of Indian Constitution?
(a) Unwriter
(b) Writer
(c) Flexible
(d) Rigid
Answer:
(b) Writer

Question 82.
In which country is found the largest written constitution of the World?
(a) America
(b) England
(c) Germany
(d) India
Answer:
(d) India

Question 83.
What is known as the Conscience of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles
(d) Independent Judiciary
Answer:
(a) Fundamental Rights

Question 84.
The Right to Property became a Fundamental Right by which constitutional amendment?
(a) 42
(b) 43
(c) 44
(d) 62
Answer:
(a) 44

Question 85.
Before the amendment, which Article contained the Right to Property?
(a) 30
(b) 31
(c) 19
(d) 32
Answer:
(b) 31

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 5 Colonial Cities Objective Questions

Question 86.
What is the minimum age to cast vote in India?
(a) 18
(b) 21
(c) 14
(d) 19
Answer:
(a) 18

Question 87.
By constitutional amendment, fundamental duties have been inserted into the Indian Constitution.
(a) 42
(b) 44
(c) 47
(d) 48
Answer:
(a) 42

Question 88.
Which of the following is the highest fundamental law given to the country?
(a) High Court
(b) Lok Adalat
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Constitution
Answer:
(c) Supreme Court

Question 89.
Indian Constitution forms which type of Government?
(a) Presidential form
(b) Parliamentary form
(c) Judiciary form
(d) Legislative form
Answer:
(b) Parliamentary form

Question 90.
Indian Constitution provides which type of citizenship?
(a) Single citizenship
(b) Dual citizenship
(c) Multi citizenship
(d) No citizenship
Answer:
(a) Single citizenship

Fill in the Blanks.

Question 1.
___________ was a pre-colonial city.
Answer:
Lahore

Question 2.
The Dutch established their colony at ___________ in India.
Answer:
Muslipattnam

Question 3.
The French established their colony in India.
Answer:
Pondicharry

Question 4.
The English first established their colony in India at ___________.
Answer:
Madras

Question 5.
Among the Europeans in India ___________ were very clever.
Answer:
English

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 5 Colonial Cities Objective Questions

Question 6.
___________ was famous for an iron factory during colonial rule.
Answer:
Bhilai

Question 7.
From ___________ Viceroy, the census began in India.
Answer:
Lord Ripen

Question 8.
In the ‘White town’ ___________ lived.
Answer:
Europeans

Question 9.
In cities ___________ got entertainment through dance, song, tamsa, etc.
Answer:
common people

Question 10.
Viceroy ___________ first built a building at Calcutta for Governmental work.
Answer:
Lord Wellesley

Question 11.
Victoria Memorial was built in ___________.
Answer:
1906

Question 12.
At ___________ In Calcutta, High Court was built.
Answer:
Esplanade

Question 13.
By the guidance of ___________, the town hall of Bombay was built.
Answer:
Colonel Thomas Cooper

Question 14.
The clock at ___________ is built in the fashion of Big Ben of London.
Answer:
Rajabai Tower

Question 15.
The present name of Victoria Tenninus is ___________.
Answer:
Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 5 Colonial Cities Objective Questions

Question 16.
In the year ___________ the Bombay University was constructed.
Answer:
1957

Question 17.
Eros Cinema Hall is located at ___________.
Answer:
Bombay

Question 18.
In the year ___________, the Bombay High Court started functioning.
Answer:
1862

Question 19.
Elphinstone College is situated at ___________.
Answer:
Bombay

Question 20.
___________ laid the foundation stone of the Ripon Building.
Answer:
Lord Minto

Question 21.
___________ Church has been declared a national shrine in 2006.
Answer:
St. Thomas Mount Church

Question 22.
The Madras Museum is situated at ___________.
Answer:
Egmore

Question 23.
Chepak Palace is located at ___________.
Answer:
Madras

Question 24.
The ___________ City of Pakistan was the Pre-colon Ial City.
Answer:
Lahore

Question 25.
In ___________ year began the census in India.
Answer:
1881

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 5 Colonial Cities Objective Questions

Question 26.
___________ Fort was built by the English at Madras.
Answer:
Fort St. George

Question 27.
___________was the first established hill station in India.
Answer:
Shimla

Question 28.
Viceroy ___________ had first shifted his residence from Delhi to Shimla during the summer.
Answer:
Lord Lawrence

Question 29.
Victorial Memorial is situated at ___________.
Answer:
Calcutta

Question 30.
The British occupied Odisha in ___________.
Answer:
1803

Question 31.
At Balasore, the Printing Press was established in ___________.
Answer:
1866

Question 32.
In ___________ year Madras Government declared Odia language to prevail in the Presidency.
Answer:
1890

Question 33.
___________ helped Nilamani Bidyaratna with the introduction of the Odia language in
Sambalpur.
Answer:
Gangadhar Meher

Question 34.
___________newspaper was published under the Patronage of Harihar Mardaraj.
Answer:
Prajabandhu

Question 35.
In ___________ year Utkal Sabha was formed at Cuttack.
Answer:
1882

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 5 Colonial Cities Objective Questions

Question 36.
Sir S. C. Bele was ___________ of Bengal.
Answer:
Prajabandhu

Question 37.
Sir Andrew Frazer was ___________ of Central Province.
Answer:
Chief Commission

Question 38.
In ___________ year Sambalpur was separated from Central Province.
Answer:
1905

Question 39.
A.C. Duff was a member of ___________.
Answer:
Philip Duff Committee

Question 40.
Hubback Committee was formed in ___________.
Answer:
1933

Question 41.
Committee gave a proposal for the creation of the Odisha High Court.
Answer:
Hubback Committee

Question 42.
___________ took oath as the first Governor of Odisha.
Answer:
Sir John Austin Hubback

Question 43.
Lord Linlithgo was the Chairman of ___________.
Ans.
Joint Parliamentary Committee

Question 44.
Madhusudan Das died in ___________.
Answer:
1934

Question 45.
___________ told that teaching should be imparted in Bengalee in Odisha Schools.
Answer:
Umacharan Haidar

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 5 Colonial Cities Objective Questions

Question 46.
___________ editorship Utkal Dipika was published.
Answer:
Gourishankar Ray

Question 47.
From ___________ place, the two newspapers named ‘Sambad Bahika’ and ‘Utkal Darsan’ were published.
Answer:
Balasore

Question 48.
___________ was the editor of ‘Sambalpur Hiteisini’.
Answer:
Nilamani Bidyaratna

Question 49.
___________ was the ruling region of Krushna Chandra Narayan Deo.
Answer:
Paralakhemundi

Question 50.
In ___________ year Simon Commission visited India.
Answer:
1928

Question 51.
__________ has been given the title the ‘Pride of Utkal’ (Utkal Gouraba).
Answer:
Madhusudan Das

Question 52.
___________is known as the ‘Grand old Man’ of Odisha.
Answer:
Madhu Babu

Question 53.
___________was elected as a member of Odisha and Chhotanagpur Municipality.
Answer:
Madhu Babu

Question 54.
___________had argued for the franchise of Odia women.
Answer:
Madhu Babu

Question 55.
___________had tried for the progress of filigree work at Cuttack.
Answer:
Madhu Babu.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 5 Colonial Cities Objective Questions

Question 56.
Gopabandhu died in ___________.
Answer:
1928

Question 57.
___________ had started the Gandhian (Congress) movement in Odisha,
Answer:
Gopabandhu Das

Question 58.
___________ is the founder of the newspaper ‘Samaj’.
Answer:
Gopabandhu Das

Question 59.
___________had participated in the First Round Table Conference.
Answer:
Krushna Chandra Gajapati

Question 60.
Alakashrama was established on the river bank of ___________.
Answer:
Alaska

Question 61.
___________Committee had finalized the administrative function and territorial arrangement of Odisha Province.
Answer:
Hubback Committee

Question 62.
Rama Devi Participated in the Salt Satyagraha at ___________ of the Balasore District.
Answer:
Inchudi

Question 63.
___________had pacified the student agitation at Ravenshaw College in 1964.
Answer:
1964

Question 64.
In the Salt Satyagraha in Ganjam, Women freedom fighters ___________played a vital role.
Answer:
Sarala Devi

Question 65.
___________ translated the book ‘History of Indian National Congress’ into Odia language.
Answer:
Sarala Devi

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 5 Colonial Cities Objective Questions

Question 66.
___________was the husband of Malati Choudhury.
Answer:
Nabakrushna Choudhury

Question 67.
___________had established Baji Rout Hostel at Angul.
Answer:
Malati Devi

Question 68.
___________had donated all her ornaments to the ‘Utkal Congress Socialist Workers Association’.
Answer:
Malati Devi

Question 69.
___________had played a vital role in the Garjat Movement.
Answer:
Malati Devi

Question 70.
Madhu Babu had accepted ___________religion.
Answer:
Christianity

Question 71.
In ___________village of Puri District Gopabandhu Das was born.
Answer:
Suando

Question 72.
After India became independent, in ___________ movement did Rama Devi join.
Answer:
Bhoodan Movement

Question 73.
In 1921, ___________session of the Indian Congress was attended by Sarala Devi.
Answer:
Nagpur

Question 74.
___________Magazine was edited by Malati Devi.
Answer:
Krusaka

Question 75.
___________, Women Freedom Fighter of Odisha had denied receiving the ‘ Jaimmalal Bajaj Foundation’Award.
Answer:
Malati Devi

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 5 Colonial Cities Objective Questions

Question 76.
The Magazine titled ‘Satyabadi’ was published at ___________.
Answer:
Sarshigopal

Question 77.
The present name of Victoria High School is ___________.
Answer:
Bhakta Madhu Vidyapitha

Question 78.
For restoring communal harmony, ___________ traveled with Mahatma Gandhi in the Noakhali area of Bengal.
Answer:
Malati Devi

Question 79.
___________was a member of the Odisha Provincial Council from 1937 to 1944.
Answer:
Sarala Devi

Question 80.
In the Prajamandal Movement of Odisha, ___________ played a vital role.
Answer:
Malati Devi

Question 81.
The Indian Constitution came into force from ___________.
Answer:
26 January 1950

Question 82.
___________was the Permanent Chairman of the Constituent Assem iy.
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 83.
___________is the father of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
B. R. Ambedkar

Question 84.
The Indian Constitution was adopted in ___________.
Answer:
26 November 1949

Question 85.
The idea of ___________ freedom struggle has been reflected in the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
American War of Independence

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 5 Colonial Cities Objective Questions

Question 86.
The idea of ___________revolution created an idea in forming the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
French Revolution

Question 87.
India is a Union of ___________.
Answer:
States

Question 88.
By ___________, the Supreme Court of India protects the interest of the Citizens.
Answer:
Writ

Question 89.
The Indian Constitution contains ___________ fundamental duties.
Answer:
10

Question 90.
The fundamental rights are the conscience of the Indian Constitution was told by ___________.
Answer:
Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 91.
The constitutional amendment procedure has been described in Article ___________.
Answer:
368

Question 92.
Article ___________ of the Indian Constitution empowers a citizen to profess and propagate religion as per one’s desire.
Answer:
Article 25

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 5 Colonial Cities Objective Questions

Question 93.
The Indian Judiciary works on ___________.
Answer:
Integrated Judicial System

Question 94.
___________was the advisor of the Constitutional Drafting Committee.
Answer:
B.N. Rao

Question 95.
___________ is the objective of the constitution.
Answer:
Preamble

Question 96.
___________one is called as the ‘Lawyers Paradise’.
Answer:
Indian Constitution

Question 97.
___________ Indian first thought about the Constituent Assembly.
Answer:
Manabendra Roy

Question 98.
___________is regarded as the conscience of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 5 Colonial Cities Objective Questions

Question 99.
___________ Articles are there in the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
395

Question 100.
___________ schedules are there in the Indian Constitution
Answer:
10

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CHSE Odisha Class 11 History Unit 5 Long Answer Questions Part-2

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 History Solutions Unit 5 Long Answer Questions Part 2.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class History Unit 5 Long Answer Questions Part-2

Long Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Discuss the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (N.A.T.O.).
Answer:
The genesis of NATO :
After the initial success of the Marshall plan, it became increasingly evident that the plan by itself would not be enough. Soviet infringement in East Europe became overtly aggressive and it was well demonstrated in the Soviet-engineered coup detat in Czechoslovakia in February 1948. In June, the Soviets imposed a blockade on Berlin aimed at dislodging the western powers from there. It suddenly became too apparent that a basic necessity for Europe’s recovery was not merely economic but also military security.

An initiative by European Powers :
The first move in this direction had already been made by the Europeans themselves when in March 1947 France and Britain signed the Treaty of Dunkirk for their mutual defense against a threat to their security. An extension of this treaty was made in 1948 then through the Brussels Pact, Great Britain, France, the Netherlands, Belgium, and Luxembourg signed a collective treaty of self-defense.

The Brussels pact was established as a military counterpart to the Organisation for European Economic Cooperation, OEEC. Just as the success of the OEEC depended upon American capital the pact members expected their alliance to attract American military support too.

Question 2.
State the formation of NATO.
Answer:
The Europeans were not disappointed. The United States which sustained Europe economically and as the leader of the movement to stop the rising tide of communism was irresistibly drawn toward this new European alliance In April 41949 Belgium, Canada, Denmark, France, Great Britain, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Norwày, Portugal, and the United States created the historic North Atlantic Treaty Organisation.

The signatory powers stipulated that an attack by an aggressor on one was an attack on all, and that ‘each of the other nations, individually or together, would take such action as it deems necessary including and force. American justification of NATO Unquestionably, for the United States, the NATO commitment set a new precedent. For the first time in its history, the Americans had committed themselves to an âlliance in peacetime.

Europe thus became America’s ‘first line of defense’. Yet despite this drastic departure from tradition, the pact met with widespread public favor. There was a general feeling that if another world war broke out in the beginning and since this, she might be able to avert it, unlike in 1914 and 1939, by issuing a warning to potential aggressors that they would have to face American opposition from the very outset.

Thus, it was precisely intended to give a clear message to the Soviet Union that the United States would fight to preserve Europe’s freedom. Europe’s vital importance to American security had been proved beyond doubt with the American participation in the two world wars. Instead of again allowing the balance of power to be upset and once more getting drawn into war after it had started the United States now wanted to prevent such an outbreak by committing herself to the preservation of Europe in peacetime.

It was presumed that the fear of meeting stiff American resistance and fighting an all-out war with the United States would deter a potential aggressor. The North Atlantic Pact was approved by the American Senate on July 21, 1949, by a vote of 22 to 13. NATO Civil Organisation The North Atlantic Treaty provides for a directing council, to be “so organized as to be able to meet pràmptly at any time.”

Originally the council was composed of the foreign ministers of the member states, but in 1951, the participating states agreed to add the defense, economic, and finance ministers to the council wherever problems of direct interest to them were concerned. The NATO council meets at the ministerial level two or three times a year and once or twice a week at the level of permanent representatives.

Though many think of NATO as an exclusive military organization, in actual point of fact Article II of the North Atlantic Treaty calls for cooperation among member states on a wide front. The council has set up committees to direct activities in many fields like information and cultural relations, armaments, infrastructure, emergency planning, food and agriculture, industrial raw materials, and manpower planning.

There are also committees of political and economic advisers and planning boards for ocean shipping and for European inland surface transport. NATO’s secretariat has major divisions of political affairs, economics, and finance as well as an office of the scientific adviser. Most of the secretariat staff work in NATO’s permanent headquarters in Brussels.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 History Unit 5 Long Answer Questions Part-2

Question 3.
What is the genesis of CENTO the Baghdad Pact?
Answer:
If NATO had its origin in the Brussels Pact, the CENTO [Central Treaty Organizatiori] too had its ancestry in the Baghdad Pact of 1955. Anti-communism being the main thrust of American Foreign Policy, it now tried to seek out ways and means to contain communism wherever it was possible.

In 1951, an Anglo-American effort for the setting up of a Middle East command misfired, largely because of its prompt rejection by Egypt. But the new Republican administration in the United States in 1953 gave another look at the idea and it encouraged the development of the “northern tier” concept.

The middle Eastern states of Asia were on the southern flank of the European continent and ran along the northern belt of the Asian continent. The Americans considered enhancing European Security by including the Middle Eastern Asian states under their security belt. Such a scheme would be advantageous to the Americans since it could give them a continuous security chain covering western Europe by NATO and the Middle East with some new regional military alliance.

The states of the “northern tier” from Turkey to Pakistan [except Afghanistan], had already come together in a series of bilateral security pacts, like the pacts between Turkey and Pakistan in August 1954, and between Turkey and Iraq in February 1955. This became the basis of the multilateral Baghdad Pact when Britain adhered to the Turkey-Iraq Pact in April, Pakistan in September, and Iraq in October 1955.

The Pact was formalized in November 1955, when five “members of the pact met in Baghdad to set up a formal organization. The organization was to have a Council of Ministers, special committees for military planning, economic cooperation, communications, and counter-subversion, and headquarters at Baghdad with a secretariat headed by a Secretary-General.

In order not to offend Egypt and Saudi Arabia, the United States did not join the pact, but it welcomed its formation, sent an observer to its original meetings and greed full participation in the Economic and counter supervision committee, and established permanent contact with the Military Committee.

Question 4.
How CENTO is formed?
Answer:
After the Iraqi revolution in 1958, a new government came to power leading to the withdrawal of Iraq from the Baghdad Pact in March 1959. The headquarters of the Baghdad Pact was promptly shifted to Ankara, and the organization was renamed Central Treaty Organisation. Unlike NATO, however, CENTO had a very development with grave consequences for the future coincided in 1979.

The Iranian Revolution of 1979, the Kampuchean crisis leading to the Sino-Vietnamese war of 1979, the US involvement in El Salvador, and finally the Soviet military intervention in Afghanistan in December 1979, gave an ominous pointer that something had gone terribly wrong somewhere.

While the Americans came to suspect the Russians of trying to impose communist dictatorship in different parts of the world the Russians were convinced of a sinister American campaign to destabilize the Soviet Union. All this and many more were a perfect recipe for the beginning of Cold War II.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 History Unit 5 Long Answer Questions Part-2

Question 5.
Describe UNO and its features.
Answer:
The setting up of the United Nations Organisation thus represented a renewed attempt with new vigor to establish world peace through an international organization. The organization has been formed by an international agreement known as the ‘Charter’ of the. United Nations and the makers of the UN charter were basically the representatives of the victorious powers [Allied] of the Second World War.

It was drawn up by the representatives of fifty states at the United Nations Conference on International Organisation which met in San Francisco, United States, from April 25 to June 26, 1945. The Charter consists of articles divided into 19 chapters which are also annexed to the 70 articles with 5 chapters of the statute of the International Court of Justice.

It was unanimously passed and signed by all the representatives on June 26, 1945, that is, even while the crucial stage of the war was still being fought in Europe and the Pacific. The United Nations officially came into being on October 24, 1945, when China, France, the United Kingdom, the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics, and the United States of America and a majority of the signatories ratified the creation of the UNO in their respective legislative bodies. Each year, October 24 is universally celebrated as United Nations Day.

Organs Languages Members Head Quarters of the UNO :
The organization, competence, procedure, and functions of the United Nations are governed by the Charter which also lays down the conditions for admission, suspension, and expulsion of member states from the United Nations. The composition, functions, and powers of the six main organs – the General Assembly, the Security Council, the Economic and Social Council [ECOSOC], the Trusteeship Council, the International Court of Justice, and the Secretariat as well as their inter-relationship are set out in die Charter.

The official languages of the United Nations are Arabic, Chinese, English, French, Russian and Spanish. The permanent headquarters of the United Nations is in New York City, United States of America, and its European Office is in Geneva, Switzerland. From original members of 51 countries in 1945, the total membership of the UNO today has risen to 191.

Limitations of the UNO :
It is pertinent to observe that the United Nations is a comprehensive international organization that has replaced the League of Nations. As such, it is the most important of all international organizations established by States. The member states have pledged themselves to maintain international peace and security and to cooperate with one another in political, social, and economic fields. However, it is important to know that the United Nations is neither a world government nor a world federation.

Hence its member’s obligations are limited and only their cooperation can put UN functions into practice. Unlike national governments, the organization has no means of enforcing its decisions. Thus it is the moral obligation of the members that make the UN what it is rather than any contractual obligation on the part of the members towards the charter of the UN.

Question 6.
Describe the creation of the UN.
Answer:
Though the origin of the United Nations can be traced back to the days of the League of Nations, it would be an oversimplification to say that the UN, came into being all of a sudden in a single day. The making of the UN has been an arduous process that spanned a considerable period of time. It came into being after a series of meetings, conferences, and discussions. The genesis of the UN could be traced back to the following landmarks.

Stages of the UN creation :
St James Palace Declaration – June 12, 1941:

  • The Allied powers resolved to continue fighting against the three Axis powers [Germany, Italy, and Japan].
  • After the end of the war, an international organization for the purpose of maintaining international peace and for promoting economic collaboration among nations should be created.

The Atlantic Charter – August 14, 1941:
This is often referred to as marking the birth of the United Nations. In this document Prime Minister Winston Churchill of Great Britain and President Franklin Roosevelt of the United States, meeting on a battleship ‘USS Atlanta’, in the North Atlantic Ocean, laid down eight general principles “on which they base their hopes for a better future for the world.”

The Declaration of the United Nations – January 1, 1942:
In this declaration, using the name later adopted for the new international organization, twenty-six nations agreed to cooperate in war and peace and emphasized that there should be an international organization based on the principle of sovereign equality of all nations, both large and small, for purposes of bringing about international cooperation.

Moscow Conference, October- November 1943:
Representatives of the USSR, USA, Great Britain, and China pledged that their united action would be continued for the organization and maintenance of peace and security and declared that they recognized the necessity of establishing at the earliest practicable date a central international organization based on the principle of sovereign equality of all peace-loving states.

Teheran conference – November 1943:
This was the first meeting of the Big, Three – Churchill, Roosevelt, and Stalin, the Soviet Premier. In a joint statement, they promised that large and small nations would be invited to join a world organization.

The Bretton Woods Conference – July 1944:
This conference was attended by representatives of forty-four nations. As a prelude to the future economic and financial reconstruction of the world, it was decided to set up two important institutions

  • the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, IBRD and
  • the International Monetary Fund (IMF). It was emphasized that no peace could entire as long as economic chaos prevailed. The IBRD and the IMF are present functioning as Specialised Agencies of the United Nations.

The Dumbarton Oaks Conference – October 1944:
[Dumbarton Oaks is an estate in Washington D.C. owned by Harvard University]. Here representatives of China, Great Britain, the USA, and the USSR, worked out proposals for the world organization to be set up. They agreed upon the blueprint and the first draft of the United Nations Charter.

Yalta Conference, February 1945:
The ‘Big Three’ – Stalin, Churchill, and Roosevelt discussed the voting procedure of the Security Council, the most important organ of the proposed world organization. It was decided here to incorporate the ‘Veto’ formula of voting which became an accepted feature of the new United Nations voting structure. France and China were made co-sponsors along with the three members of the Yalta conference. These five states finally became the five permanent members of the Security Council.

San Francisco Conference – April 25 – June 26, 1945:
Fifty-one nations [including India] were invited to attend this conference. This was the last step in the long drawing process that led to the emergence of the United Nations. A number of proposals made by medium and small powers attending the conference were discussed and it resulted in the creation of the Economic and Social Council as one of the primary organs of the United Nations.

The powers of the General Assembly and die Security Council were clearly defined and altogether there were to be six principal organs of the United Nations. On July 28, 1945, the United States of America approved its membership in the UN. Within another three months, the charter was ratified by all of the permanent members of the Security Council and by a majority of the signatories. The launching of the United Nations marked the beginning of a New World Order.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 History Unit 5 Long Answer Questions Part-2

Question 7.
Write the objectives of the UN.
Answer:
The primary objectives of the United Nations are incorporated in the charter of the United Nations. Article 1 of the charter gives an elaborate and vivid description of these objectives.

Maintenance of International Peace and Security:
The maintenance of international peace and security is the primary objective of the United Nations. In order to save succeeding generations of mankind from the curse of war, world peace is to be maintained by preventing and suppressing breaches of the peace and by promoting conditions conducive to the preservation and maintenance of peace.

Avoidance of war is to be achieved by measures known as collective security. Provision is placed in the charter for powerful sanctions against states which have violated peace. The Security Council is empowered to decide on matters of world peace. The United Nations is expected to maintain the necessary armed forces from the member nations in accordance with an agreement to be concluded between the Security Council and the members of the United Nations individually.

Thus the Peace Observation Commission and the United Nations Emergency Force were created in 1950 and 1956 respectively for the basic purpose of enforcing peace where it is violated. Preservation of the world order necessitates peaceful settlement of disputes among members of the United Nations and a variety of methods for the pacific settlement of international disputes are offered to the member states.

Self-government & Independence:
Development of friendly relations among the states based on respect for equal rights and self-determination of peoples. This is another fundamental objective of the UNO, wherein it is to promote the people of different areas of the world who are hitherto dependent, to be given the right of self-government and independence.

Cooperation Socio-economic fields & Championing of Human Rights :
Furtherance of cooperation among the members in social, economic, cultural, educational, and humanitarian problems and to promote respect for human rights. To put these goals into practice the Economic and Social Council serves as a major organ and it receives adequate support from the General Assembly and various other international specialized agencies.

The ECOSOC is empowered to establish as many commissions as it deems necessary in the area of human rights and it can recommend and prepare draft conventions on human rights and fundamental freedom for all. Encouragement of respect for human rights and fundamental freedom is also stated to be a basic objective of the trusteeship system. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was overwhelmingly adopted in the General Assembly in 1948.

Disarmament:
To work for the successful implementation of the principle of general and completed disarmament in nuclear and non-nuclear weapons.

Centre for harmonizing relations :
Another basic objective of the United Nations is to act as a center for harmonizing the actions of nations in attaining these common ends and more specific goals, e goa s as spelled out in the charter are:

  • taking appropriate measures to strengthen universal peace,
  • practicing tolerance and living – together in peace as good neighbors and
  • establishing justice and respect for international law.

Other Objectives:
Article 2 of the Charter prescribes certain other principles upon which the United Nations acts. They are:

  • The UN is based on the principle of sovereign equality of all its members.
  • All members are required to fulfill in good faith their Charter obligations.
  • Members are advised to settle their international disputes by peaceful means and without endangering peace, security, and justice.
  • Member nations are to refrain from the threat or use of force against other states.
  • Member nations are to render every possible assistance for any action the UNO takes in accordance with the Charter and shall not provide any help to the state or states against which the UN is about to take preventive or enforcement action.
  • The UN shall ensure that states which are not members act in accordance with these principles in so for as is necessary for the maintenance of international peace and security.
  • The Charter does not authorize the UN to intervene in matters which are entirely within the domestic jurisdiction of any state. The basic objectives and principles of the United Nations as enshrined in the charter are thus directed toward the maintenance and preservation of world peace and security.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 History Unit 5 Long Answer Questions Part-2

Question 8.
Discuss the General Assembly and its compositions and functions.
Answer:
The General Assembly, one of the six main organs of the UN as specified in Article 7 of the charter is the deliberative organ of the UN and is its pivotal organ. It frames been described as a ‘world forum’ or the ‘world’s own meeting’.

Composition:
The General Assembly has the states as its members and all member nations are equally represented in this organ. Each member state is entitled to send 5 representatives and 5 alternate representatives. Irrespective of the number of its delegates present in the General Assembly, each member country is entitled to one vote only.

Functions:
The General Assembly’s functions are as under:
To consider and make recommendations on the principles of international cooperation in the maintenance of peace and security, including the principles governing disarmament. To discuss any problem affecting peace and security, except where a dispute is being currently discussed in the Security Council.

To initiate studies and make recommendations to promote international political cooperation, the development of international law, the realization of human rights and fundamental freedom for all, and international collaboration in economic, social, cultural, and educational arid health fields. To receive and consider reports from the Security Council and other organs of the UNO.

To elect the non-permanent members of the Security Council, the members of the Ecosoc, and the elective members of the Trusteeship Council. To take part with the Security Council in the election of Judges of the International Court of Justice and On the recommendation of the Security Council to appoint the Secretary-General.

To consider and approve the budget of the United Nations, and to examine the budgets of specialized agencies. The Uniting for Peace Resolution adopted in 1950 enlarged the sphere of activity of the General Assembly. As per this Resolution, if the Security Council failed to exercise its power for the maintenance of international peace and security due to the lack of unanimity among the permanent members, the General Assembly was authorized to consider the matter immediately and make appropriate recommendations for collective measures.

In case of a breach of the peace or an act of aggression, the General Assembly can authorize the use of armed forces when necessary. In theory, though the Charter maintains that the Security Council is the most important organ of the UN., in practice, particularly after the passage of the UN for Peace Resolution, the General Assembly has been transformed from mg the deliberative organ to the most effective organ of the UN.

Question 9.
Discuss the structure of the General
Assembly.
Answer:
Since the General Assembly is a very large body, it becomes very difficult to have a normal transaction of a business. Hence the General Assembly functions through its committees – seven main committees, two standing committees, two procedural committees, and a number of permanent, semi-permanent, and ad hoc committees.

Apart from the seven main committees, other important committees and commissions under the General Assembly are the Little Assembly, the International Law Commission, the Peace Observation Commission, the United Nations Emergency Force, the UNICEF [United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund], the UNCTAD [United Nations Conference of Trade and Development], UNIDO [United Nations Industrial Development Organisation].

Sessions and voting procedure:
The General Assembly meets for the annual plenary session in September every year. The session extends up to the middle of December. The General Assembly can also be convened for special sessions and emergency special sessions. Voting in the body is conducted on the basis of a simple majority of those present and voting when minor issues are concerned. But for major international issues like admission, suspension, and expulsion of a member nation, a two-thirds vote of the Assembly is required.

Jurisdiction :
Though the General Assembly can discuss any issue affecting international peace and security, it cannot discuss any matter falling within the domestic jurisdiction of any member state. Since the General Assembly is not a world parliament, its de ions are not obligatory but only recommendatory in character. Members States are free to accept or reject the decision of the General Assembly.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 History Unit 5 Long Answer Questions Part-2

Question 10.
Discuss the Security Council and its composition and functions.
Answer:
The Security Council functions as the executive wing of the UNO. As long as there is unanimity among, the Big Five, this organ can function very effectively and efficiently. Article 7 of the Charter states that the Security Council like the General Assembly is a primary organ of the UNO.

Composition:
Despite all claims of equality among large and small nations made in the Chapter, there is no denying the fact that the Security Council is built along the core of Big

Powers:
Membership in the Security Council is of two kinds – permanent and elective [non-permanent]. The five permanent members are named in Article 23 of the charter. They are – the United States of America, the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics, the United Kingdom, France, and China, are the big five.

It is important to observe that till 1971 the China seat in the Security Council was represented by Nationalist China based in Taiwan, but since 1971 this seat has been allotted to Communist China based in Beijing. Similarly, with the dissolution of the USSR [Soviet Union] in 1991 with the end of the cold war, the USSR seat is at present represented by Russia

Functions:
The functions of the Security Council are:

  • To maintain international peace and security in accordance with the purposes and principles of the United Nations.
  • To investigate any dispute which might lead to international friction.
  • To formulate plans for the establishment of a system to regulate armaments.
  • To call upon members to apply economic sanctions against a potential aggressor nation so as to prevent actual aggression.
  • To take military action against the aggressor.
  • To recommend the admission of new members
  • To recommend to the General Assembly the appointment of the Secretary-General and together with the General Assembly to elect the judges of the International Court of Justice.
  • To submit annual and special reports to the General Assembly.

Question 11.
Explain ECOSOC and its functions.
Answer:
The ECOSOC consists of 54 members. The General Assembly elects by a vote of two t s majority present and voting the members of the ECOSOC for three-year terms. Retiring members are eligible for immediate re-election. Eighteen members retire every year and every member state is entitled to one representative. Though there are no permanent members in the ECOSOC, in actual practice the Big Five and medium-range powers like India, Canada and Yugoslavia are frequently re-elected.

Functions:

  • To be responsible under the authority of the General Assembly, for the economic and social activities of the United Nations.
  • To initiate studies, reports, and recommendations on international economic, social, cultural, educational, health, and related matters.
  • To promote respect for and observance
    of human rights and fundamental freedoms for all.
  • To call international conferences and prepare draft conventions for submission to the General Assembly on matters within its competence.
  • To negotiate agreements with the specialized agencies, defining their relationship with the U.N.
  • To coordinate the activities of specialized agencies of the U.N. and to obtain reports from them.

The most significant of all its activities, however, is its persistent concern for human rights. Since 1960 ECOSOC has remained busy in solving the problems of and fulfilling the aspirations of developing nations. A structure like the General Assembly ofthe United Nations, the ECOSOC which has been authorized by the provisions of the Charter to establish as many subsidiary organs as may be necessary for the fulfillment of its functions, has set up a cobweb of commissions and committees.

Thus the ECOSOC works through commissions, committees, and various other subsidiary bodies.
There are seven functional commissions:

  1. The Statistical Commission.
  2. Population Commission
  3. Commission For Social Development.
  4. Commission on Human Rights.
  5. Commission on the Status of Women.
  6. Commission on Narcotic Drugs.
  7. Commission on Commodity Trade.

There is also a sub-commission on the Prevention of Discrimination and Protection of minorities which works under the direction of the Commission on Human Rights.

Regional Economic Commissions:
The ECOSOC has set up five regional commissions which study the economic problems of their respective regions and recommend courses of action related to economic development, such as electric power, inland transport, and trade promotion.
These commissions are:

  • Economic Commission for Europe [ECE]. This was established in 1947 with its headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland.
  • Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific. It was set up in 1947 with headquarters in Bangkok, Thailand.
  • Economic Commission for Latin America. Set up in 1948, it has its headquarters in Santiago, Chile.
  • Economic Commission for Africa was established in 1958 in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia.
  • Economic Commission for Western Asia was established with headquarters in Beirut, Lebanon.

Besides, there are six standing committees:

  1. Programme and Coordination
  2. Natural Resources.
  3. Non-Governmental Organisations
  4. Inter-government Agencies
  5. Transnational Corporations and
  6. Human Rights.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 History Unit 5 Long Answer Questions Part-2

Question 12.
What are the Trusteeship Council and state its objectives?
Answer:
The Trusteeship Council evolved from the idea of the die Mandates system of the League of Nations. Article 7 of the charter states that the Trusteeship Council shall be a primary organ of the United Nations. But like the ECOSOC, the Trusteeship Council to does not have an independent jurisdiction. It is directly subordinated to two of her primary organs like the General Assembly and the Secretary Council.
There are two types of Trust territories:

  • Strategic Trust Territory,
  • Non-strategic Trust Territory.

The Security Council and the Trusteeship Council supervise the functioning of the Strategic Trust Territory. Till 1994 there was only one group of trust territories in the North Pacific Ocean and they are the Marshall, Mariana, and Caroline Islands. In 1994 the islands became the Republic of Belau, hence there are no strategic trust territories at present.

The General Assembly and the Trusteeship Council are the supervising authorities of the Non-strategic Trust territories. At present, there are no strategic trust territories since all such territories have attained independence The Trusteeship Council was set up to supervise and administer trust territories placed under its disposal by individual agreements.

Chapter XII of the UN charter provides for an international trusteeship system that shall apply to

  1. Territories held under the mandate of the League of Nations after the First World War, like Iraq, Syria, Lebanon, Jordan, and Palestine have all attained independence except Palestine which is now under Israeli occupation,
  2. Territories that may be detached from ex-enemy states as a result of the Second World War. The territory of Somaliland taken from Italy came under this category
  3. Territories are voluntarily placed under the System by states responsible for their administration. No such territory was voluntarily brought by any of the former colonial powers under the trusteeship system.

The objectives of the Trusteeship system are:

  • To further international peace and security.
  • To promote political, economic, social, and educational advancement.
  • To promote respect for human rights and fundamental freedoms for all the people of the trust areas.
  • To provide equal treatment for all the countries in respect of social, economic, and commercial interests in the administration of justice.
  • To promote the peoples of the area concerned to self-government or ‘ independence in accordance with the provisions of the Trusteeship Agreement for the territory.

Question 13.
Discuss the functions and compositions of the Trusteeship Council.
Answer:
Functions:
The function of the Trusteeship Council is to supervise the administration of Trust territories. In carrying out this function, the council is authorized:

  1. To formulate a questionnaire on the political, economic, social, and educational advancement of the inhabitants of Trust territories on the basis of which the Administering Authority is to make annual reports.
  2. To examine and discuss reports from Administering Authorities.
  3. To examine the petition in consultation.
  4. To expand the agreed upon with the Administering Authorities.

Composition:
The composition of the Trusteeship Council is based on three factors:
All the administering powers are to be represented on the Trusteeship Council. All the permanent members of the security council which is not have administering powers are also to be represented on the Trusteeship Council. The elective members of the Trusteeship Council are elected by the General Assembly.

Altogether there were 11 Trust territories of which 10 were designated as non-strategic trust territories and was designated as strategic trust territory. By January 31, 1968, all non-strategic trust territories had gained independence, leaving only the five permanent members of the Security Council as members of the Trusteeship Council.

In 1994 the only strategic trust territory too gained independence, hence the Trusteeship Council, with no business to perform, has become non-functional. Its works completed, the Trusteeship Council now consists of the five-year permanent members of the Security Council and it has amended its rules of procedure to allow it to meet as and when occasion requires.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 History Unit 5 Long Answer Questions Part-2

Question 14.
Discuss the Jurisdiction of the Court of International Court of Justice.
Answer:
It is important to note that only states and not individuals can be parties before the court. But the greatest deficiency of the court lies in the fact that, unlike national legal systems, the ICJ does not have compulsory jurisdiction. In other words, its decisions are only recommendatory and not obligatory or binding in character.

Very often the Security Council may recommend that a legal dispute be referred to the court. The General Assembly and the Security Council can also ask the court for an advisory opinion on any legal question. Besides, other organs of the UN and specialized agencies can refer the court for an advisory opinion. Normally the maximum number of references to the court seeking advisory opinion is made by the General Assembly.

Guiding Principles :
The court while deciding disputes submitted to it in accordance with Article 3 8 of the statute, shall be guided by:

  • International conventions establish rules recognized by the contesting states.
  • International customary law.
  • General Principles of law recognized by nations.
  • Judicial decisions and the teachings of the most highly qualified publicists of the various nations. At times the court may decide a particular case by deviating from strict law but in a spirit of conciliation, compromise and friendliness, provided the parties concerned agree to such a method.

Decisions by the Court:
Despite several weaknesses and loopholes, the ICJ has played a significant role in the growth of the international legal system. Perhaps the most outstanding, contribution made by the ICJ is in the field of systematic codification of international, law. Important decisions of the court can be seen in the following cases, to name only a few:

  1. The Asylum case.
  2. The Right to Passage Over Indian Territory case.
  3. Anglo-Iranian Oil Company Case.
  4. The Corfu Channel case.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 History Unit 5 Long Answer Questions Part-2

Question 15.
Discuss the position of the Secretary-General and its functions.
Answer:
The Secretary-General is not the co-employee of the Staff of the Secretariat and there exists a gulf between the Secretary- 5. General and other members of the Secretariat. The members of the Secretariat are appointed by the Secretary-General in accordance with the rules established by the General Assembly.

In their appointment, promotion, and separation from service, the Secretary-General has considerable powers, The Secretariat carries out the day-to-day work of the UN, and the staff members are drawn from more than 100 countries. The members of the staff being international civil servants are expected to fulfill their functions impartially.

The major functions of the Secretary-General are:

  • To be the chief administrative officer of the organization.
  • To act as Secretary to all the major delegate bodies of the United Nations.
  • To perform functions assigned to him by the General Assembly, the Secretary Council, the ECOSOC, and the Trusteeship Council.
  • To furnish annual reports to the General Assembly on the functioning of the organization.
  • To appoint members of the staff of the Secretariat.
  • To take initiative in bringing any matter before the Secretary Council war according to him might constitute a threat to international peace and Secretary.

In actual practice, the role of the Secretary-General has far increased in scope. And has gone much beyond the expectations of the makers of the charter Instead of being merely the chief. Administrative officer, he has become the most important political officer of the UN who constantly exerts himself for the preservation and maintenance of international peace and security.
Thus functions today may be classified under three categories

  • political functions
  • representative functions,
  • administrative functions.

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CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 2 Basic Concepts Objective Questions

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CHSE Odisha 11th Class Sociology Unit 2 Basic Concepts Objective Questions

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
Where there is life, there is a society, who said this?
(i) Weber
(ii) Auguste Comte
(iii) Maclver and Page
(iv) Aristotle
Answer:
(iii) Maclver and Page

Question 2.
Who said the man is a social animal?
(i) Maclver
(ii) Plato
(iii) Aristotle
(iv) Comte
Answer:
(iii) Aristotle

Question 3.
Society is a consciousness of the mind is the definition of whom?
(i) Giddings
(ii) Plato
(iii) Davis
(iv) Aristotle
Answer:
(i) Giddings

Question 4.
Society determines __________ of the state.
(i) Background
(ii) Jurisprudence
(iii) Purpose
(iv) All of these
Answer:
(iii) Purpose

Question 5.
The term society in sociology is used to refer to
(i) The persons professing the same religion
(ii) The system of social relationship.
(iii) The persons living in an area.
(iv) The organised relations between individuals.
Answer:
(ii) The system of social relationship.

Question 6.
Who has defined society as a system of usage and procedure of authority and mutual aid of many groupingÿ and divisions of control of human behaviour and of liberty.
(i) Gidding
(ii) A.W. Green
(iii) Maclver
(iv) Comte
Answer:
(iii) Maclver

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 2 Basic Concepts Objective Questions

Question 7.
What does society exclude?
(i) Differences
(ii) Interdependence
(iii) Similarity
(iv) Time boundness
Answer:-
(iv) Time boundness

Question 8.
Origin of society was due to
(i) Evolution
(ii) God’s will
(iii) Force
(iv) None of these
Answer:
(i) Evolution

Question 9.
Society exists only when
(i) The members posses common interests.
(ii) The members are at the same place and same time.
(iii) The members know each other.
Answer:
(iii) The members know each other.

Question 10.
Sociology attempts an interpretative understanding of human behaviour who said this?
(i) Max Weber,
(ii) Plato
(iii) Giddings
Answer:
(i) Max Weber

Question 11.
Whoinitiatedthisideathatthegroupmind was the basis of society.
(i) A.W. Green
(ii) Comte
(iii) Max Weber
(iv) Mc Dougall
Answer:
(iv) Me Dougall

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 2 Basic Concepts Objective Questions

Question 12.
Which is not a characteristic society from the following?
(i) Definiteaim
(ii) Interdependence
(iii) Co-operation
(iv) Likeness
Answer:
(i) Definite aim

Question 13.
What do you mean by society?
(i) The system of usage and procedure.
(ii) The interaction of the group.
(iii) The people
(iv) The places of their residences.
Answer:
(i)The system of usage and procedure.

Question 14.
Who said society is a web of social relationships?
(i) Giddings
(ii) Cooley
(iii) Maclver
(iv) Ginsberg
Answer:
(iii) Maclver

Question 15.
Who said society is a common property?
(i) Thomas
(ii) Maclver
(iii) Colley
(iv) Giddings
Answer:
(i) Thomas

Question 16.
Which of the following is a functional prerequisite of society?
(i) Some rules
(ii) Definite area
(iii) Group of people
(iv) Provision of security
Answer:
(iv) Provision of security

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 2 Basic Concepts Objective Questions

Question 17.
Man is not born human, but to be made human who of the following says it.
(i) Durkheim
(ii) Prof. Park
(iii) Aristotle
(iv) Comte
Answer:
(ii) Prof Park

Question 18.
Which of the following element distinguishes animal society from human society?
(i) Physical strength
(ii) Laugh
(iii) Culture
(iv) Speech
Answer:
(iii) Culture

Question 19.
Which of the following elements of difference between society and community?
(i) A group of people
(ii) Links
(iii) Definite locality
(iv) Sentiment
Answer:
(iii) Definite locality

Question 20.
Man is a social animal because_______.
(i) His nature and necessity made him so.
(ii) His forefathers have lined in society.
(iii) Society was born with him.
Answer:
(i) His nature and necessity made him so.

Question 21.
Which of the following shows the foral cases to prove social nature of man?
(i) Aristotle
(ii) K. Davis
(iii) Maclver
(iv) Comte
Answer:
(iii) Maclver

Question 22.
A group of people organised for a particular purpose is known as :
(i) Association
(ii) Society
(iii) Community
Answer:
(i) Association

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 2 Basic Concepts Objective Questions

Question 23.
The theory which draws some similarities between society and human body is called is________.
(i) Group mind theory
(ii) Idealist theory
(iii) Organic theory
(iv) Natural theory
Answer:
(iii) Organic theory

Question 24.
Which of the following is an association?
(i) State
(ii) Trade Union
(iii) Tennis Club
(iv) All of these
Answer:
(iv) All of these

Question 25.
Which of the following is held to be the right of the origin of the society?
(i) Evolutionary theory
(ii) Genetic theory
(iii) Patriarchal theory
(iv) Divine right theory
Answer:
(i) Evolutionary theory

Question 26.
By which of the following an association is characterised?
(i) Customs
(ii) Folkways
(iii) Usage
(iv) Norms
Answer:
(iv) Norms

Question 27.
Which of the following is not the basic elements of a community?
(i) Communitysentiment
(ii) Legal status
(iii) Environment friendly
(iv) Definite locality
Answer:
(ii) Legal status

Question 28.
What makes a society?
(i) Place as their residence
(ii) Time boundness
(iii) The people
(iv) Reciprocity
Answer:
(iv) Reciprocity

Question 29.
Culture is man-made part of the environment who said this?
(i) Malimoshi
(ii) Taylor
(iii) Kroeber
(iv) None of these
Answer:
(iii) Kroeber

Question 30.
What distinguishes human society from animal society?
(i) Geography
(ii) Reproduction
(iii) Organisation
(iv) Culture
Answer:
(iv) Culture

Question 31.
Who called society mind unit large?
(i Pareto
(ii) McDougall
(iii) Aristotle
Answer:
(i) Pareto

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 2 Basic Concepts Objective Questions

Question 32.
What is the most fundamental unit of human society?
(i) Family
(ii) Individual
(iii) Religion
(iv) Economy
Answer:
(i) Family

Question 33.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a social group?
(i) We feeling
(ii) Similar ethnic background
(iii) Reciprocal relation
(iv) Common territory
Answer:
(ii) Similar ethnic background

Question 34.
Which of the following is characteristic of the social group.
(i) Common territory
(ii) Sense of unit
(iii) Compulsory membership
(iv) Face-to-face preserve
Answer:
(iii) Compulsory membership

Question 35.
Groups are classified into the primary groups and secondary groups by
(i) Swamper
(ii) Maclver
(iii) C.H. Cooley
(iv) Karl Marx
Answer:
(iii) C.H. Cooley

Question 36.
Which of the following is characteristic of culture?
(i) Culture makes man’s life materially comfortable.
(ii) Culture is learnt.
(iii) Culture is a divine creation.
(iv) Culture is a religious system.
Answer:
(ii) Culture is learnt.

Question 37.
Culture has importance for the group because
(i) It satisfies human needs for food and shelter.
(ii) It provides stability to the goal.
(iii) It keeps social relationships in fact.
(iv) It marks off one group from the other.
Answer:
(iii) It keeps social relationships in fact.

Question 38.
To constitute culture the acquired behaviours should be________.
(i) Shared by and transmitted among the members of the group.
(ii) Believed to be ideal by the group.
(iii) Shared by the group.
(iv) Transmitted a way to the members of the group.
Answer:
(ii) Shared by and transmitted among the members of the group.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 2 Basic Concepts Objective Questions

Question 39.
Material culture implies
(i) Possession of essential commodities.
(ii) Possession of material occupation.
(iii) Possession of luxurious articles.
(iv) Possession of concrete ideas of beliefs.
Answer:
(iii) Possession of luxurious articles.

Question 40.
What does culture usually reflect in modem society?
(i) Religionculture
(ii) National culture
(iii) Geographical culture
(iv) Group culture
Answer:
(ii) National culture

Question 41.
Society is co-operation and crossed by conflict was said by __________.
(i) Cooley
(ii) GillinandGillin
(iii) Maclver
Answer:
(iii) Maclver

Question 42.
Our culture is what are, our civilization is what we have who said this?
(i) Comte
(ii) C.C. North
(iii) Max Weber
(iv) Maclver
Answer:
(iv) Maclver

Question 43.
Culture may be defined as________.
(i) Sumtotalofcollective behaviour.
(ii) Unconditioned people.
(iii) Pattern of arrangements by society.
(iv) Typical habit patterns of people.
Answer:
(iv) Typical habit patterns of people.

True or False Type Questions

Question 1.
Maclver insists that sociability is the essence of society.
Answer:
False
George Simmel insists that sociability is the essence of society.
Answer:
True

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 2 Basic Concepts Objective Questions

Question 2.
The term sociology was coined in the year 1848.
Answer:
False
The term sociology was coined in the year 1939.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Maclver says that society rests on consciousness kind.
Answer:
False
F.H. Giddings says that society rests on consciousness of kind.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The term society was derived from the Greek word “socius”?
Answer:
False
The term society was derived from the Latin word socius means companions.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Society is a web or network of human relationships.
Answer:
False
Society is a web or network of social relationships.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
The word community has been derived from the Greek word commences.
Answer:
False
The word community has been derived from the Latin word commences.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Comte cited three cases of infant isolation from the group to prove social nature of man.
Answer:
False
Maclver cited three cases of infant isolation to prove social mature of man.
Answer:
True

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 2 Basic Concepts Objective Questions

Question 8.
Community sentiment means a feeling to differences.
Answer:
False
Community sentiment means a feeling of being together or a sense of we feeling.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
A community is bigger than society.
Answer:
False
Community is smaller than society.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
Community is a creation of human all.
Answer:
False
Community is grows spontaneously.
Answer:
True

Question 11.
Aristotle says society involves both likeness and differences.
Answer:
False
Maclver says society involves both likeness and differences.
Answer:
True

Question 12.
K. Davis opines community is the smallest territorial group that can embrace all aspects of social life.
Answer:
True
Community sentiment is the most important characteristic of a community.
Answer:
True

Question 13.
Community sentiment is the most important characteristic of a community.
Answer:
True

Question 14.
A community does not possesses a definite territory.
Answer:
False
A community always possesses a definity territory.
Answer:
True

Question 15.
A community is a temporary social group.
Answer:
False
A community is a permanent social group.
Answer:
True

Question 16.
Village is an example of association.
Answer:
False
Political party is an example of association.
Answer:
True

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 2 Basic Concepts Objective Questions

Question 17.
Association is a group of organised people having common interest.
Answer:
True
An association may be both temporary or permanent.
Answer:
True

Question 18.
An association may be both temporary or permanent.
Answer:
True

Question 19.
Association has no aims.
Answer:
True
Association has definite aims.
Answer:
True

Question 20.
An association does not have any states.
Answer:
True

Question 21.
Association is natural formed.
Answer:
False
Association is artifical formed.
Answer:
True

Question 22.
Membership of an association is compulsory.
Answer:
False
Membership of an association is optional.
Answer:
True

Question 23.
Association is permanent in nature.
Answer:
True
Association may be both temporary and permanent.
Answer:
True

Question 24.
Ogbrum Nimkoff says that a social group is a system of social interaction.
Answer:
False
H. M. Johnson says that a social group is a system of social interaction.
Answer:
True

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 2 Basic Concepts Objective Questions

Question 25.
Family is an example of a secondary group.
Answer:
False
Family is an example of primary group.
Answer:
True

Question 26.
C. H. Cooley wrote the book ‘Social Organisation’.
Answer:
True

Question 27.
Playgroup is an example of primary group.
Answer:
True

Question 28.
A political party is an example of secondary group.
Answer:
True

Question 29.
Red Cross society is an example of primary group.
Answer:
True

Question 30.
Secondary relation is an end in itself,
Answer:
False
Secondary relation is a means of an end i.e. it is goal oriented.
Answer:
True

Question 31.
Cooley classifies group into in-group and out-group.
Answer:
False
Cooleyclassifies group into primary and secondary groups.
Answer:
True

Question 32.
Summer classifies groups into in-group and out-group on the basis of contract.
Answer:
True
Summer classifies groups into in-groups and out-groups on the basis of consciousness of kind.
Answer:
True

Question 33.
K. Davis has outlined the characteristics of the primary group as internal and external.
Answer:
True

Question 34.
Culture is individual behaviour.
Answer:
False
Culture is a shared behaviour.
Answer:
True

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 2 Basic Concepts Objective Questions

Question 35.
Maclver first used the term culture.
Answer:
False
E.B. Tylor first used the term culture.
Answer:
True

Question 36.
Culture is inborn.
Answer:
False
Culture is learned not inborn.
Answer:
True

Question 37.
Culture is not based on symbols.
Answer:
False
Culture is based on symbols.
Answer:
True

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CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 2 Basic Concepts Long Answer Questions

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CHSE Odisha 11th Class Sociology Unit 2 Basic Concepts Long Answer Questions

Long Type Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by society? Explain the characteristics of society.
Answer:
The term “society” is derived from the Latin word ’socius’, which means companionship means sociability. As George Simmel pointed out, it is this element of sociability which defines the true essence of society. It indicates that man always lives in the company of other people. ‘Man is a social animal’, said Aristotle centuries ago. Man lives in towns, cities, tribes, villages, but never alone.

Loneliness brings him boredom and fear. Man needs society for his living, working and enjoying life. Society has become an essential condition for human life to arise and to continue. Human life and society always together.

(1) According to Maclver and Page, “Society is a system of usages and procedures, authority and mutual aid of many groupings and divisions, of control, of human behaviour and of liberties”.
(2) According to F.H. Giddings, “Society is the union itself, the organisation, the sum of formal relations in which associating individuals are bound together”.

Characteristics of Society:
In its broadest sense society means the whole human society, the community of all human beings. A very large section of the humanity may be called a society. The Western Christendom; the people of Islam, the Indians, the English and the French are some such societies because they belong to very large social communities.

A society, thus, means a large social community having many things in common in the way of living of its members for a closer and better understanding we have to discuss the characteristics of society. Society is composed of people, without the students and the teachers there can be no college and no university. Similarly, without people there can be no society, no social relationships, and no social life at all.

Society is a group of people in continuous interaction with each other. It refers to the reciprocal contract between two or more persons. It is a process where by men interpenetrate the minds of, each other. An individual is a member of society so long as he engages in relationsihp with Other members of society. It means that individuals are in continuous interaction with other individuals of society.

The limits of society are marked by the limits of social interactions. Social interaction is made possible because of mutual awareness. Society is understood as a network of social relationships only where the members are aware of each other. Society exists only where social beings ‘behave’ towards one another in ways determined by their recognition of one another. Without this awareness there can be no society. A social relationship, thus implies mutual awareness.

The principle of likeness is essential for society. It exists among those who resemble one another in some degree, in body and in mind.
Likeness refers to the similarities. People have similarities with regards to their needs, works, aims, values, outlook towards, and so on. Just as the ‘birds of the same father flock together’, men belonging to the same species called homosapiens, have many things in common.

Society, hence rests on what F.H. Giddings calls consciouness of kind. “Comradeship, Intimacy, association of any kind or degree would be impossible without some understanding of each by the other and that understanding depends on the likeness which each apprehends in other”. Society in brief, exists among like beings and likeminded.

Society also implies difference. A society based entirely on likeness and uniformities is bound to be loose in socialites. If men are exactly alike, their social relationships would be very much limited. There would be little give-and-take, little reciprocity. They would contribute Very little to one another. More than that, life becomes boring, monotonous and uninteresting, if differences are not there.

Hence, we find difference in society. Family for example, rests on biological difference between the sexes. People differ from one another in their looks, personalities, ability, talent, attitude, interest, taste, intelligence, faith and soon. People pursue different activities because of these difference.

Thus we find farmers, labourers, teachers, soldiers, businessmen, bankers, engineers, doctors, advocates, writers, artists, scientists,- musicians, actors, politicians, bureaucrats and others working in different capacities, in different fields in society. However, difference alone cannot create society. It is subordinated to likeness.

Society is not static, it is dynamic. Change is ever present in society. Changeability is an inherent quality of human society. No society can Over remain constant for any length of time. Society is like water in a stream or river that forever flows. It is always in flux. Old men die and new ones are born.

New associations and institutions and groups may come into being and old ones may die a natural death. The existing ones may undergo changes to suit the demands of time or they may give birth to the new ones. Changes may take place slowly and gradually or suddenly and abruptly.

Primarily likeness and secondarily difference create the division of labour. Division of labour involves the assignment to each unit or group a specific share of a common task. For example, the common task of producing cotton clothes is shared by a number of people like the farmers who grow cotton, the spinners, the weavers, the dyers, and the merchants.

Similarly, at home work is divided and shared by the father, mother and children. Division of labour leads to specialisation. Division of labour and specialisation are the marks of modem complex society. Division of labour is possible because of co-operation. Society is based on cooperation. It is the very basis of our social life.

As C.H. Cooley says, cooperation arises when men realise that they have common interests. It refers to the mutual working together for the attainments of a common goal. Men satisfy many of their desires and fulfil interests through joint efforts. People may have direct or indirect co-operation among them. Thus co-operation and division of labour have made possible social solidarity or social cohesion.

Society has its own ways and means of controlling the behaviour of its members cooperation, no doubt exists in society. But side by side. Competitions, conflicts, tensions, revolts, rebellions and suppression are also there. They appear and re-appear off and an. Clash of economic or political or religions interests is not uncommon. Left to themselves, they may damage the very fabric of society.

They are to be controlled. The behaviour or the activities of people are to be regulated. Society has various formal as well as informal means of social control. It means society has customs, traditions, conventions and folkways, mores, manners, etiquettes and other informal means of social control. Also it has law, legislation, constitution, police, court, army and other formal means of social control to regulate the behaviour of its members.

Social relationships are characterised by interdependence. Family, the most basic social group, for example, is based upon the interdependence of man and woman. One depends upon the other for the satisfaction of one’s needs. As society advances, the area of interdependence also grows.

Today, not only individuals are interdependent upon one another, but even, communities, social groups, societies and nations are also interdependent. Each society has its own ways of life Culture. This distinguishes one society from another. Culture refers to the total range of our life. It includes knowledge, belief, art, morality, values, ideas, ideologies, sciences and philosophies.

A society has a comprehensive culture. It is culturally self-sufficient. It may carry on trade with other societies, but the cultural patterns involved in this trade are the part of the culture of the society itself. For example, the pattern of extending credit, the recognized rates of exchange, the means of payment, the form of contacts all these cultural patterns are the parts of the culture of each society involved in interaction.

The members of a society share a common and unique culture. In our society we share such cultural symbols as the August Fifteen, January Twenty six and so on. We also share cultural values of collectivism and spiritualism. Collectivism means the economic theory and industry should be carried on with a collective capital and spiritualism is the philosophical doctrine that nothing is real but soul or spirit.

Me Dougall, say that man is social because of the basic human instinct called the gregarious instinct. Gregariousness refers to the tendency of man to live in groups. Man always lives amidst, men. He cannot live without it. This internal nature of man has forced him to establish social groups and societies and to live in them.

Human life and society almost go together. Man is born in society and bred up in society, nourished and nurtured in society. From childhood to adolescence, from adolescence to youth, from youth to maturity, from maturity to old age, from old age up to death, man lives in society. He depends on society for protection and comfort, for nature and education.

Participation in society is necessary for the development of personality. Various cases show that man can become man only among man. Society makes our life livable. It is the nurse of youth, the arena of manhood and womanhood. Society, is therefore, as Maclver puts it, more than our environment. It is within us as well as around us, Society not only liberates the activities of men, but it limits their activities also. It controls their behaviour in countless ways.

It shapes our attributes, our beliefs, our morals and our ideals. Emotional development, intellectual maturity, satisfaction of problems needs and material comforts are unthinkable without society. Society is a part of our mental equipment and we are. a part of society, stimulates the growth of our personality. It liberates and controls out talents and capacities.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 2 Basic Concepts Long Answer Questions

Question 2.
Examine the importance of the functional pre-requisites of society.
Answer:
Preservation of human society requires the fulfilment of certain functional necessities, which we may call as functional pre-requisites. There are certain pre-requisites of a harmonious and active social system. A tension ridden social system cannot function efficiently. As a healthy body works if there is no disorder in its parts.

Similarly, a society system can function efficiently if there is order among its parts. There are so many needs or requisite, which society needs. It is impossible to analyse all the requisites society needs. Yet some of the important pre-requisites of society are discussed here.

The basic needs are food, clothing, shelter and security. Every man needs food for very survival. Without it life is impossible. As a civilized being clothing is also another bare necessity of human being. Similarly for his rest, to avoid rain, cold and other hazards of environment he needs shelter.

Therefore, food, clothing and shelter are regard as the most human being is security. No human being or human society can survive without protection from its members. Therefore, human being needs protection from every front for his survival.

Another important need of human society is the human actions and systematic social relationship. For this there must be division of labour. Every society has a clear division & labour among men and women, the young and the old and on the basis of ability. Division of labour and division of responsibility if necessary for every society. Similarly, systematic of relationship rests upon the likeness among the people,

There should be sufficient number of people in a social system so that it may function efficiently. The number should not be too much or too less. In a society there should be a definite system of procreation to maintain the continuity. Procreation is the means through which new members come and old members are replaced.

The new members of society learn social values and systems of behaviour because of which continuity of society is maintained. Therefore, replacement of population is the need of society. Socialization of the young is very much necessary. Not only young but also other members go through the process of socialisation.

Through the process of socialisation the cultural norms of a society is transferred, to the next generation. Socialisation plays a very important role in this regard. Because no new generation is not a new beginning. The new members of society learn social values and systems of behaviour because of which the continuity in society is maintained.

Attainment of goal is another prerequisite of society. There must be flow among the members, a continuous stream of meaningfulness and goal without which the survival of society comes into question. Each social system has some norms of conduct. These are socially approved ways of behaviour which the members are expected to observe or to follow. If these are violated social system cannot function effectively

Sometimes individuals knowingly or unknowingly deviate – the existing social order for which it becomes impossible to maintain order in the society. Therefore, control should be exercised over individuals to observe the, norms of society. As a result of which the social system may function in a satisfactory manner. Social control helps members to learn and preserve value oriented behaviours;

The actors of a society should accept the social system instead of showing resentment against it. Even they should have eagerness towards positive action.

Question 3.
Analyse the characteristics of Community.
Answer:
Community consists of a group of people without a group of people community can not be formed. Every community has a definite geographical territory. This territory can be changed according to the growth of population. The members of a community have a sense of community sentiment and degree of we-feeling.

The customs, traditions, folkways, mores, language and many other things of the members of a community are very, similar. Like crowed community is not temporary or short lived. It is a natural and permanent organisation. A community may be big or small in size. The small community exists within a big community.

Every community has certain rules and regulations which members compulsorily obeyed Community fulfils all the fundamentals needs of its members. Community is not deliberately or purposively created. It is a spontaneous and naturally and group. It group naturally develops spontaneously. Each and every community has a particular name by which one community is distinct from another.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 2 Basic Concepts Long Answer Questions

Question 4.
Analyse the characteristics of Association.
Answer:
An association is formed or created by people. It is basically a social group. Without people there can be no association. An association is not merely a collection of individuals. It consists of those individuals who have more or less the same interests. An association is based on the cooperative spirit of its members. People work together to achieve some definite purpose.

Association denotes some kind of organisation. An association is known essentially as an organised groups. Every association has its own ways and means of regulating the relations of its members. Associations, are means or agencies through which their members seek to realise their similar or shared interests.

Such social organisations necessarily act not merely through leaders, but through officials or representatives, as agencies. An association may be permanent or temporary. There are some long-standing associations like the state, family, religious associations etc. some associations may be purely temporary in nature.

Question 5.
Analyse the characteristics of Social Institution.
Answer:
The main characteristics of social institutions may be described here:
Institutions come into being due to the Collective activities of the people. They are essentially social in nature. Social institutions are ubiquitous. They exists in all the societies and existed at all the stages of social development. An institution must be understood as standardised procedures and norms.

They prescribe the way of doing things. They also prescribe rules and regulations that are to be followed. Marriage, as an institution, for example, govern the relations between the husband and wife. Institutions are established by men themselves. They cater to the satisfaction of some basic and vital needs of man.

Institutions like religion, morality, state, government, law, legislation etc., control the behaviour of men. These mechanisms preserve the social order and give stability to it. Institutions are like wheels on which human society marches on towards the desired destination. Institution normally do not undergo sudden or rapid changes.

Institutions are not external, visible or tangible things. They are abstract. Institutions may persist in the form of oral and or written traditions. Institutions may have their own symbols, material or non-material. Institutions, though diverse, are interrelated.

Question 6.
Distinguish between Society and Community.
Answer:
Society is a web of social relationship but community consists of a group of individuals living in a particular area with some degree of we filling. A definite geographical area is not an essential aspect of society. A definite locality or geographic area is essential for community.
Society is abstract but community is concrete.

Community sentiment or a sense of we-feeling may be present or may not. But for the community sentiment is an essential element of community. There can be no community in its absence. Society is wider community is smaller than society: There can be more than one community in a society.

The objectives and interests of society are more extensive and valid but community has limited objectives. Society involves both likeness differences, but likeness is more important in community. There is common agreement of interests and objectives on the post of members.

Question 7.
Different between Association and Institution.
Answer:
An association is a group of people organised for the purpose of fulfilling a need or needs. But institutions refers to the organised way of doing things. It represent common procedure. Association denotes membership but institution denotes only a mode or means of service. We belong to association, to political parties, trade unions, youth clubs, families etc.

We do not belong to institution. We do not belong to marriage property, education or law. Association consists of individuals, institution consists of laws, rules and regulations. Association are concrete but institutions are abstract. An association has a location, it makes sense to ask where it is but an institution does not have location. The question where it is, makes no sense at all.

Thus, a family can be located in space but we cannot locate examination, education, marriage etc. Association are mostly created or established but institution are primarily evolved. An association may have its own distinctive name but institution does not process specific names, but has a structure and may have a symbol. Association may be temporary or permanent but institution are relatively more durable.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 2 Basic Concepts Long Answer Questions

Question 8.
Discuss the characteristics of Secondary Group.
Answer:
Large Size:
The first characteristic of secondary group is its large size. The size of secondary group is so large because it is formed by a large number of people. Secondary group have spread all over the country. For example political party which is secondary group, consisting of thousands of members and work throughout the country. Similarly, the members of International Red Cross Society scatter all over the world. Due to large size, all the members of secondary group are indirectly related to each other.

Indirect Relations:
Secondary groups are characterized by indirect relations. All members are indirectly related to each other because a secondary group is bigger in size than a primary group and the members cannot say together. The specialization of functions leads to indirect relation in secondary groups.

For example, in the large scale organizations where division of labour is complex, the members have not only different functions but also different powers, different degrees of participation, different sights and obligations. All these lead to indirect relations. The contacts and communications in secondary group are mostly indirect.

Formal and Impersonal Relations:
Relation among the members of secondary groups are formal and impersonal. The members do not have face-to-face relations. People do not develop personal relations among themselves. In large scale organization, there are contacts and they may be face-to-face, but they are, “as says Kingsley Davis, “the touch-and go variety. The numbers in secondary group are more concerned with their self-centred interests than with other persons. Thus the secondary relations are formal and impersonal.

Voluntary Membership:
The membership of secondary group is not compulsory but always voluntary. People may join secondary groups according to their sweet will. For instance, one may join a political party or may not joint it. Similarly one may or may not join a political party or may not joint it. Similarly one may or may not join a particular recreational club. It is not essential to become the member of Rotary International Club or Red Cross Society. This is no compulsion. This voluntary membership leads indirect and impersonal relations among the members of a secondary group.

Formal Rules:
Secondary groups are regulated by formal rules and regulations. A secondary group exercises control over its members through formal ways. The secondary relation are directly controlled by police, jail, anny, court and various other formal means. Status of Individual depends upon his role. In secondary group the position of status of every member depends upon his role.

Every members in a secondary group plays a role or a number of roles. His status in the group is determined by his role. For example, the status of the president of a political party depends upon the role he plays in the party and not upon his birth or personal qualities. Similarly, in a college, the status of the principal depends upon his role not upon his birth and other traits.

Individuality in Persons:
Secondary groups are sometimes called “special-interest groups”. Individuality develops in the persons in secondary groups because, their relations are based on self-interests. When their interests are satisfied they lose interest in the group. Thus self-interest leads the members to develop their individuality in secondary groups.

Active and Inactive Members: A secondary group is very large in size. Physical closeness and intimacy are totally absent among its members. Owing to this reason, some members of the group become active and some others are quite inactive. For instance, in a national political party, a majority of the members take active interest where as the rest of the members do not take any active interest in the party work.

Self-dependence Among the Members: The members of a secondary group are self-dependent. They want or desire to fulfil their self-interests. For this purpose, the members of a secondary group depend upon themselves in order to safeguard their own interests.

Goal Orientation:
Lastly, the main purpose of a secondary group is fulfill a specific aim. That means each secondary group is formed to achieve a specific goal. The members are not interested in maintaining close and personal relations but they are only interested in achieving the aim or which they have joined the group.

For example trade union is formed for the better working conditions of the workers. Similarly, a teacher’s association is formed for securing better conditions of service for teacher.

Question 9.
Describe the characteristics of Primary group.
Answer:
According to C.II. Cooley, following are the important and essential characteristics of a primary group.
Physical Proximity:
The members of primary group must be physically close to one another. They develop intimacy on account of close contact among themselves. It will be very difficult to exchange ideas and thoughts in the primary group unless its members are in close physical proximity to one another.

So that there exists a physical proximity among the members of a primary group which leads to the exchange of thoughts among them. Therefore, physical closeness is an essential ingredient of a primary group.

Small Size:
The primary group is always small in size. It is so small, that the desired intimate relationship can be developed among its members. Due to its small size, the members of a primary group know each other personally and develop a group character.

Continuity of Relationship:
The relations among the members of the primary group are direct, close, intimate and personal. These relations are continuous and permanent. The members of the primary group meet and discuss with each other frequently. The continuous and frequent relations bring stability in the primary group.

We-Feeling:
There a is strong “We- Feeling” among the members of a primary group. They are always motivated by unique slogan that ‘we are all the members of a particular group’. They treat the members of their own group as their near relatives or friends and the persons belonging to other groups their own group and all of them protect their interest unitedly.

The members of a primary group stand each other for the welfare of their group. For instance, the parents often sacrifice their interests for the sake of the family.

Personal Relations:
The relations among the members of primary group are personal, spontaneous and inclusive that means all the members of the primary group personally known each other. Member of primary groups have personal relations and this is why the gap of one member’s absence is not filled completely by the other.

For instance, in the family after the death of wife, a person may marry again but the memory of the dead wife does not end with it. No other person can take the place of a particular friend or a family member. Thus Maclver says that “in the primary group-life our relations with other are always, to some extent, personal”.

Common Aims and Objectives:
In a primary group all the members have common aims and objectives. For example in family the pleasure and pain of every member is shared by the whole family and all the members work for some common aim. Thus in primary groups, the aims and objectives are the same for all the members. In other words, all the members of a primary group work collectively for the fulfilment of their common aims and objectives.

Similarity of Background:
The members of a primary groups always have similar background. They should be equally experienced so that each member can either give or take something from other members. According to Maclver “A level on which every group must dwell and the person who is too far above or below it, disturbs the process of group participation”. In the primary group each member presents his own view point and accepts the view-point of others.

Limited Self-interest:
The member of a primary group have their own interest but self-interest of the members is subordinated to the common interest of the group as a whole.

They must come together in spirit to participate co-operatively. The common interest must predominate in their mind. It introduces the element of common cause among the members of a primary group. The common interest provide mental pleasure and contentment to the members.

Stability:
A primary group is more stable than other groups. To promote closeness and intimacy of relationship, the primary group should be stable and permanent to some extent. The stability of nature of primary groups brings unity and integrity among the members.

Maximum Control over the Member: Due to the intimacy, spontaneity, physical proximity, small size and stability of the group, all the member of a primary group can know each other personally. In the primary group, it is very difficult for any person to avoid the other. Therefore, primary group exercises Maximum control over the members.

In a primary group, the younger members are directly controlled by the elder members. For instance, in a family, the parents control the younger ones. The primary group does not permit anybody to follow a wrong path and stops him from doing any action contradictory to group customs, traditions, more, norms, values and ideals.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 2 Basic Concepts Long Answer Questions

Question 10.
Distinguish between Primary and Secondary Group.
Answer:
Size of the primary groups is usually very small. It is because the big size of the group defeats the very purpose of a primary x group whereas the size of secondary groups is very large and runs into many thousands in many cases. Membership of a primary group are spread in a limited area whereas the members of the secondary group can be found all over the world.

Relations between the members in a primary group are very intimate, close and direct whereas the relations between members are neither very close nor direct but indirect and formal. Members in primary groups cooperate spontaneously with each other. They meet on long-term basis and solve their problems and differences.

Whereas in secondary groups deliberate efforts have to be made to organise and the members meet only for particular purpose and as soon as that purpose is achieved, the group is dissolved. In primary groups all the members have common interest They struggle and work hard to achieve those interests. Efforts are collective and combined.

In secondary groups the members have no direct interest. They have selfish aims and try to achieve them by joining this type of group. Therefore, efforts are not collective and combined. There is no formal code of conduct for the working of members ofprimary group. But in the case of secondary group a detailed code of conduct is required for the smooth working of the group.

A formal authority is also needed to regulate conduct and behaviour of members of the group. In primary groups no such authority is needed. In the primary group, all the members take active part formatting the group self-sufficient. But in the Case of secondary groups many members are not active but take only passive interest with the result that only few are leaders and all others are followers.

The primary groups are found in rural areas while secondary groups are found in urban areas. The size of the primary group being small, it does not include any other group in it. But the secondary group being large, many other small groups are included in it. A primary group sees that there is an allround development of personality of an individual.

It see that personality of an individual finds fullest expression in the group. The second any groups do not care for all sided development of its individuals. It is concerned with only one aspect of his life and tries to develop that one.  In primary groups, the co-operation of the members is direct and willing.

where as co-operation of members in the secondary groups is indirect and even that is not willing forthcoming. Thus it is clear that the primary groups were most suited in the primitive societies where social structure was neither complex nor complicated. But these groups cannot function smoothly in modem times because of our complicated social arrangement. It does not mean in any way that the need of primary groups has decreased.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 2 Basic Concepts Long Answer Questions

Question 11.
Explain the Cultural Lag.
Answer:
The concept of cultural lag has come to occupy an important place in the writings of eminent sociologists. It is a concept that has a particular appeal in an age in which technological inventions and innovations of many other kinds are constantly disturbing the elder ways of livings. Ogburn was the first sociologist to elaborate upon the idea of cultural lag and to formulate a definite theory, though in the writings of other sociologists particularly Sumner, Muller-Lyer, Wallar and Spencer the existence of a cultural lag is implied.

Ogburn distinguishes between ‘material’ and ‘non-material’ culture. By material aspects of culture he means things like took utensils, machines, dwellings, the manufacture of goods and transportation. In the non-material aspects he includes family, religion government and education. When changes occur in the material aspects, those in turn simulate changes in the non-material aspects.

The non-material culture, according to Ogbum is often slow to respond to the rapid inventions in material culture. When non-material culture does not adjust itself readily to the material changes it falls behind the material and gives rise to cultural lag: In Ogbums words. “The strain that exists between two correlated parts of culture that changes as unequal rates of speed may be interpreted as a lag in the part that is changing at the slowest rate, for the one lags behind the other”.

In material culture, discoveries and inventions are rapidly made to which the non-material culture is to adjust itself and if it cannot, a lag culture. If society is to maintain an equilibrium, both the parts of culture, material and non-material should be properly adjusted. Ogburn, therefore concluded that the problem of adjustment in Modem society is chiefly one of enabling the non-material aspects of culture to catch up with the material aspects.

In other words, man should adopt his ways of thinking and behaving to the state of his technology. Ogburn gave examples to substantiate his thesis. The patriarchal type of family, adapted to agricultural conditions, is continued in a largely industrial urban society. The major problems faced by the modem family come from the persistence in any obsolete form.

Similarly, the old concepts of sovereignty are still held despite the obvious changes that have brought nations close to each other and made them much more interdependent than in the past. Another instance of a lag is the discrepancy between the number of police official and the growth of population.

The growing cities have not increased their police force fast enough, nor the decreasing cities have reduced their soon enough. The change in the number of police officials lags behind the change in the population. During the late nineteenth and early twentieth-century industry changed first, and the family lagged behind in its change.

Women were slow in following their jobs outside the home. Thus after citing various examples Ogbum concluded that “the many and frequent technological innovations of our modem age by occurring prior to the social changes they precipitate, are the causes of many cultural lags in society”.

Among the various technological developments and inventions that are producing cultural lags in contemporary society Ogbum included the telephone, motor-car, wireless, cinema, power-driven agricultural. machines, printing, photographs, alloys, electrical goods, welding, the aeroplane, air conditioning, artificial lighting contraceptives, television etc. These are resulting in a terrific impact on society its social institutions, its customs and its philosophies.

The result is a vast accumulation of cultural lags. Thus, in the modem age, cultural lag is visible in the various elements of culture. Lumley has beautifully written that “It seems as if many pedestrian soldiers or a complete army are marching out of step or as if some of the performers of an orchestra are playing last year’s music and still others last century’s music or even more ancient music at the same time.

Criticism:
Ogburn’s hypothesis of cultural lag has been accepted by many of sociologist but there are a few critics who point out that the distinction between material and non-material culture is not a workable one. It we cling to the old fashioned way when under new conditions our needs could be better served by changing them we cannot properly say that the lag is between the material and non-material.

Nor should it be assumed that it is always the material that is in advance of the non-material or that the main problem is of adjusting non-material to the material culture. Maclver observes that the term lag is not properly applicable to relations between technological factors and the cultural pattern of between the various components of the culture pattern itself.

He regards “technological lag” a better term than “cultural lag”. According to Meuller, “Cultural lag is artificial and imaginary.” Coming to the influence of cultural factors on social relationships it has been acknowledged by all that there is an intimate connection between our beliefs and our institutions. Our valuations and our social relationships.

The social and cultural factors are closely interwoven that all cultural change involves social change. New ideologies causes significant changes in the modes of group life. It was the social philosophy or Marxism, wrought into a dynamic evangelism and finding its opportunity in the suffering.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Unit 2 Basic Concepts Long Answer Questions

Question 12.
Define Culture and discuss its features.
Or,
What is Culture? Analyse the characteristics of Culture.
Answer:
Culture is one of the most important and basic concepts of sociology. In sociology culture has a specific mean. The anthropologists believe that the behaviour which is meant is called culture, hi other words the behaviour which is transmitted to as by some one is called culture. The way of living, eating, wear, sing dance and talk it are all parts of a culture.

In common parlance the word culture is understood to mean beautiful, refined or interesting. In sociology we use the word culture to denote acquired behaviour which are shared by and transmitted among the members of the society. In other words, culture is s system of learned behaviour shared by and transmitted among the member of the society.

In other words, culture is a system of learning behaviour shared by and transmitted among the members of a group. Definitions of Culture“Culture has been defined in various ways by sociologists and anthropologists. Following are the important definition of culture”. E.B. Tyler defines “Culture is that complex whole which includes knowledge, belief, art, morals, law, customs and any other capabilities and habits acquired by man as a member of society”.

Edward Spiro says that “Culture is any socially inherited element the life of man, material and spiritual”. Malinowaski defines “Culture the handiwork of man and conventional understanding manifest in art and artist which persisting through which he achieves his ends”. Redfiled remarks that “Culture is an organised body of conventional understanding manifest in art and artifact which characterizes a human group”.

Maclver is of view that “Culture is the expression of our nature in our modes of living and our thinking. Intercourse in our literature in religion, in recreation and enjoyment”. According to E.S. Bogardus “Culture is all the ways of doing and thinking of a group”. Characteristics of Culture For a clear understanding of the concept of culture it is necessary far as to know its main characteristics. Culture has several characteristics. Following are the main characteristics of culture.

Culture in Learnt:
Culture is not inherited biologically, but learnt socially by man. It is not an inborn tendency. There is so culture instinct as such culture is often called learned, ways of behaviour, unlearned behaviour such as closing the eyes. While sleeping the eye blinking reflex and so on are purely physiological and culture sharing hands or saying namaskar or thanks and sharing and dressing on the other hand are culture.

Similarly wearing clothes, combing the hair, wearing ornaments, looking the food, drinking from a glass, eating from a place or leaf, reading a newspaper, driving a car, enacting a role in drama, singing worship etc. are all ways of behaviour learnt by culturally.

Culture is Social:
Culture does not exist in isolation neither is it an individual phenomenon, it is product of society. It originates and develops through social interact. It is shared by the members of society. No man can acquire culture without association with other human beings. Man becomes man only among men. It is the culture which helps man to develop human qualities in a human environment deprivation is nothing but deprivation of human qualities.

Culture is Shared:
Culture in the sociological sense, is something shared. It is not something that an individual alone can possess. For example customs, traditions, beliefs, ideas, values, morals etc. are shared by people of group or society. The invention of Arya Bhatta or Albert Einstein.

Charaka or Charles Dante, the philosophical works of Confucious or LaoTse, Shankaracharya or Swami Vivekananda, the artistic work of Kavi Verma or Raphall etc. are all shared by a large number of people, culture is something adopted used, believed, practised or possessed by more than one person. It depends upon group life for its existence (Robert Brerstedt).

Culture is Transmissive:
Culture is capable of being transmitted from one generation to the next. Parents pass on culture traits to their children and they in turn to then- children and so on. Culture is transmitted not through genes by means of language. Language is the main vehicle of culture.

Language in its different forms like reading, writing and speaking makes it possible for the present generation to understand the achievements to earlier generation. But language itselfs is apart of culture. Once language is acquired it unfolds to the individuals it wide field. Transmission of culture may take place by imitation as well as by interaction.

Culture is Continuous and Cummulative:
Culture exists as a continuous process. In its historical growth, it tends to become cummulative culture is growing whole which includes in itselfs, the achievement of the past and present and makes provision for the future achievements of mankind. Culture way thus be conceived of as a kind of stream flowing down through the centuries from one generation to another.

Hence some sociologists like Lotion called culture the social heritage of man. As Robert writes culture or the money of human race. It becomes difficult for its to imagine what society would be like without his accumulation of culture what lives would be without it.

Culture is consistent and inter-related:
Culture in its development has revealed tendency to be consistent. At the same time different parts of culture are inter-connected For examples the value system of a society. A society is closely connected with its other aspects such a morality, religion, customs, traditions, beliefs and so on.

Culture is Dynamic and Adoptive:
Though culture is relatively stable it is not altogether static. It is subject to slow but constant, change. Change and growth are latent in culture. We find amazing growth in the present Indian culture when we compare it with the culture of the Vedic times. Culture is hence dynamic.

Culture is responsive to the changing conditions of the physical world. It is adoptive. It also intervence in the natural environment and man in his process of adjustment. Just as our house shelter us from the storm, so also does our culture help us from natural changes and assist us the service. Few of us indeed could survive without culture.

Culture is Gratifying:
Culture provides proper opportunities and prescribes means for the satisfaction our need and desires. These needs may be biological or social in nature our need for food, shelter and clothing on the one hand our desire for status,’ name formed money mates, etc. are all for example, fulfilled according to the culture ways, culture determines and guides the varied activities of man. In fact culture is defined as the process through which human beings satisfy their wants.

Culture varies from Society to Society:
Eyery society has a culture on its own. It differs from society to society. Culture of every society is quite to itself Cultures are uniform. Culture elements such as customs, tradition, ideals, values, ideologies, beliefs practice philosophic institutions, etc. are not uniform everywhere, ways of eating, speaking, greeting, dressing, entertaining, living etc. of different specialities differ significantly. Culture varies from time to time also.

No culture ever remains constant or changeless. It Manu were to come back to see the Indian society, today he would be bewildered to witness the vast changes that have taken place in our culture.

Culture is super-organic and identical:
Culture is sometimes called the super-organic. By super organic Herbert Spencer meant that culture is neither organic, nor inorganic nature but above those two, the term implies the social meaning may be independent of physiological and physical, properties and characteristics for example the social meaning of a national flag is not just a piece of coloured cloth.

The flag represents a nation, similarly, priests and prisoners professors and professionals, players, engineers are not just biological beings. There social status and role can be understood only through culture.

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CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Questions And Answers

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Solutions Unit 5 Intelligence Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Questions And Answers

Short-Answer Type Questions

Question 1:
Creativity
Answer:
Creativity is a kind of cognitive activity that results in a new way of solving problems. The concept of creativity needs special attention.

Question 2:
Artificial Intelligence
Answer:
In the stage of information technology and computer science artificial intelligence. The computer’s performance is done by artificial intelligence.

Question 3:
Hereditary factors
Answer:
Several studies have been conducted on identical twins to determine the role of hereditary. Holzinger identicals this twins.

Question 4:
Age and Intelligence
Answer:
I.Qs tend to be erratic in the first few years of life, whole intellectual ability. Binet’s intelligence tests were first administered to individuals of different age groups.

Question 5:
Emotional Intelligence
Answer:
The concept of emotional intelligence is quite a novel one. Current researchers have started recognising that in the world.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Questions And Answers

Question 6:
Distribution of intelligence in the population
Answer:
When intelligence test is administered to thousands of children of the same age the population. In the OX axis, the amount of I.Q. is presented.

Question 7:
Sternberg’s briarchic theory of approach.
Answer:
Sternberg (1985) has attempted to explain the concept of intelligence. Componential intelligence. Experiential intelligence emphasizes insight and involves the ability to formulate new 7 ideas. Contextual intelligence it is 3rd aspect. Sternberg’s view of intelligence is purposive adaption.

Question 8:
Emotional intelligence
Answer:
The concept of emotional intelligence is quite a novel one. Current researchers have started recognising that in the practical world. This is in fact very encouraging and illuminating research in the finding in the area of intelligence. Intelligence is the capacity to adapt and adjust quickly to-varied circumstances of life. This is more necessary and required in life than theoretical or abstract intelligence.

Question 9:
Artificial Intelligence
Answer:
In the age of information technology and computer science, artificial intelligence demonstrates intelligent performance. Intelligence is created by human beings. Examples computerisation, calculations perceptual tasks etc. We can solve problems and play complex games on computers. We can plan everything easily through the computers.

Question 10:
Mental age (M.A.)
Answer:
Mental age is a measure of the absolute level of intelligence. A 6-years old child who performs the intelligence test of a 5-year-old child is said to have mental age, of 5 years. In short, mental age refers to a type of norm. The Stanford-Binet test result indicates that mental ability increases as the child grows older. In the case of children with normal intelligence mental age increases at the same rate as chronological age.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Questions And Answers

Question 11:
Intelligence Quotient (I.Q.)
Answer:
The ratio which states the relationship between mental age and chronological age is called I.Q. The I.Q. or the intelligent Quotient is computed by the formula. The I.Q. as a ratio gives a figure for any person that remains more or less constant for a period of years. An intelligent person is referred to in the term I.Q. Children who are above average will receive an I.Q. above 100.

Question 12:
Infant intelligence tests
Answer:
Some intelligence tests have also been constructed to measure the intelligence of infants and babies. Most of these are meant to measure sensory motor skills. Arnold GeseU’s development schedules like Binet and Wechsler Scaler indicate a clear age progression. The age levels vary from one month to two years. At each age level, the tests are divided into four categories such as motor, adaptive, and language.

Question 13:
Contextual intelligence
Answer:
This is the 3rd aspect of stemborg’s theory. If centres around that intelligence which deals with the inter environment and external world. Persons who rate high on the dimension of contextual intelligence. Stenberg’s, theory puts emphasis on the basic knowledge about cognition. Sternberg’s view of intelligence is purposive adaptation.

Long Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Define intelligence and its definitions.
Answer:
Nature and operational definition of Intelligence.
Geeta is the brightest child I ever saw. Look at her big black eyes; how sharp and 1 expressive they are! She learns a thing almost before you have told it to her. Oh! see how smart Sushil is, you would think he was two years instead of one year. He is S-0-0 intelligent and sharp. These are the common expressions we hear from parents, teachers, neighbours and friends regarding various children.

Brightness, sharpness, and cleverness all refer to some sort of intelligence, which is recognized universally as one of the most important attributes of any person at any age. Those who are most alert mentally, who can react and respond very quickly to any stimulation and cap grapes at the earliest and can understand things before you complete your sentence are l said to be very intelligent.

An intelligent person is always in an advantageous position in society. He can adjust to various circumstances of life in the most appropriate way, can solve problems quickly, can achieve things at a greater speed, can perceive the relationship between different things in the field and can give shape, an organisation to any perception.

On the whole, an intelligent person usually becomes the most successful person, keeping other factors constant. The term intelligence is so commonly used, but it is so complex that it is difficult to give a comprehensive and precise definition of intelligence which would be accepted by most.

As years, pass, volumes of research on intelligence make it so complicated that it becomes difficult to embrace all attributes of intelligence in a single definition. However, psychologists have defined intelligence in their own characteristic way, according to their own conceptions and theories. There still prevails a controversy about its exact meaning although the country’s definitions of intelligence have been there.

The term ‘intelligence’ is derived from a Latin word, framed by Gicepo to translate a Greek word used by Aristotle to include all cognitive processes. This cognitive capacity was called ‘ Intelligence’ and it was thought to be inherited, innate and general to nature. Spencer believes that intelligence is the capacity of the organism to adjust itself to an increasingly complex environment.

Thus, he believed biological adjustment to be a sign of intelligence. Solving complex situations of life means solving the problems of engineering, science, medicine, mathematics, economics, social science, agriculture, business and management”. Galton (1900) was of the opinion that intelligence refers to the general cognitive, innate ability of an organism which was accepted by Binet.

Intelligence is a trait of personality which every living organism possesses to a greater or lesser degree. It is innate, given by birth. Whatever may be the meaning of intelligence, it definitely refers to the individual’s effectiveness or ability to carry on real tasks of day-to-day life successfully and efficiently.

Hence, a person who is able to meet the demands and challenges of life successfully, one who is able to carry out the duties of life effectively is said to be more intelligent than one who does not. According to Binet (1905), the pioneer in the construction of intelligence tests “Intelligence refers to comprehension, intention, direction and criticism”.

Intelligence, therefore, refers to the capacity to comprehend the interrelationship between two things when many other things are present, being more akin to insight. The comprehensive capacity of a less intelligent person or an idiot is superficial, his power to invent is limited. An intelligent person can direct things in a successful manner and can criticise and appreciate things.

Wyatt defines intelligence as the power of apprehending the relationship. According to Stem “Intelligence is a general mental adaptability to new problems and conditions”. In Thorndike’s opinion intelligence is the combination of certain specific abilities. Terman defined intelligence as the capacity to carry out abstract thinking.

Terman is of opinion that we are able to act until gently in proportion we are able to think in abstract terms. But this is quite a narrow definition of intelligence as it does not involve other psychological processes such as perception, imagination etc. Superman (1904) suggested that intelligence is the capacity for constructive thinking, a discovery of appropriate qualities and relations of the ideas that are before us.

Spearman also believes intelligence to be the capacity by which the entire cognitive life is built. According to him, intelligence depends upon the clarity with which he apprehends his own experience, the speed with which he deduces relations and correlations and the complexity of the relation and correlations he deduces.

Most of the modem tests of intelligence are based on these lines. David Wechsler defines intelligence as the aggregate or global capacity of the individual to act purposefully to think rationally and deal effectively with the environment. Precisely, he says that intelligence characterises the individual’s behaviour as a whole. But acting purposefully is not an intelligent behaviour because it refers to the conative aspects of one’s behaviour, while intelligence is related to the cognitive process.

According to Thurstone (1930), intelligence consists of many primary abilities. Some have also defined intelligence as “flexibility or versatility in the use of symbolic processes”. A person who is more flexible and versatile in his reasoning, understanding of concepts, recall, perception and learning is said to be more intelligent.

The theme of these definitions advanced by different psychologists can be summarized as follows:

  • Intelligence is the ability of the organism to adjust consciously to new conditions and problems of life.
  • It is the capacity to leam, to solve higher kinds of mental activities, to do harder tasks in a shorter time and to profit from past experience.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Questions And Answers

Question 2.
Critically examine the necessity of infant intelligence tests.
Answer:
Infant intelligence tests according to Gesell these tests do not measure intelligence but the level of development of the child. Thus, the score obtained by an infant in these tests is called Development Quotient (DQ). This is calculated with the same formula used to calculate I.Qs. Performance is scored in months which becomes D. A. (Development Age) like M. A. That is, if a child of two years is able to perform the tests meant, a baby of one year, his D. A. is one year and C. A. is two years and his DQ=\(\frac{12 \times 100}{24}\)=50.

Studies, however, indicate that D.Qs found during infancy do not correlate with I.Qs. achieved at maturity level (16-20 years). The most outstanding study to support this assumption is the Berkeley Growth Study by Bayley and Schaefer (1964) in which children were tested from the first month to the age of 16,17 and 18 years and their D.Qs were compared.

The lack of correlation between these studies explained the fact that the two scores reflect different abilities. This study also strongly supports the assumption that intelligence is not a single capacity growing with age; but rather a collection of several abilities some found in the young child and others found in the older child.

In one study by Hotstaetter(1954) early test scores were found to depend mostly on sensory-motor alertness whereas measures of persistence were important in determining test scores from ages 2-4. Verbal reasoning ability increased rapidly through the pre-school years and as the child grew they became the more important determinants of test scores. All these results suggest that with the growth of intelligence, mental functioning changes qualitatively as well as quantitatively.

Mental Age (M.A.):
Mental age is a measure of the absolute level of intelligence. A 6-year-old child who performs the intelligence test of a 5-year-old child is said to have a mental age of 5 years. When a child of 10 years passes all the tests of a 6-year-old child and half of the tests of 7 year old and none for those of 8 years, his mental age is calculated as 6 years + 6 months + 0 = 78 months.

His chronological age is 10 years. Thus, the mental age is calculated by first finding the age level at which the child passed all the test items, this is called the basal age and then adding up the values for the I remaining items correctly answered. In short, the mental ages refer to a type of norm.

The Stanford-Binet test results indicate that mental ability increases as the child grows older. In the case of children with normal (average) intelligence mental age increases at the same rate as chronological age. But in the case of bright children, there is a more rapid increase in mental ability as a result of which their mental age becomes greater than their chronological age.

On the other hand, in the case of less intelligent (slow) children, the mental age increases at a slower rate in comparison to their chronological age. Thus a six-year-old who performs the tests of a three-year-old only is said to be dull or an idiot. When a 5-year aid is able to answer the test of 10-year-old children, he is said to be very bright. For the calculation of I.Q. mental age is necessary.

Intelligence Quotient (I.Q):
The ratio which states the relationship between mental age and chronological age is called the I.Q. or the Intelligent Quotient. The I.Q. is computed by the following formula :

I.Q=\(\frac{M \cdot A}{C \cdot A}\)x100 if the M. A. and C. A. of an individual are the same, say 10, his I.Q. would be 100 which refers to the average intelligence: (M.A.=10, C.A.=10; I.Q.=\(\frac{10}{10}\)x100=100). Thus normal persons have an I.Q. of 100. If M.A. is 6 and C.A. is 5, I.Q. will be \(\frac{6}{5}\)x100=120, which means better than average intelligence.

Similarly, if one’s M.A. is 10 and C.A. is 15, his I.Q. would be \(\frac{10}{5}\)x100=66.66. This refers to the intelligence level of a moron. The I.Q. as a ratio gives a figure for any person that remains more or less constant for a period of years. Children who are above average will receive an I.Q. above 100. Those below the average will receive an I.Q. below 100.

The I.Q. is not only a measure of relative brightness, but it is also a measure ofthe individual’s rate of intellectual development. Usually, tire levels of intelligence of a person are referred to in terms of I.Q. ranges. The following table show levels of intelligence in terms of Stanford-Binet I.Q. ranges:

                   I.Q. Range
Idiot 0-25
Imbecile 25-50
Moron 50-70
Borderline 70-80
Low normal 80-90
Normal 90-100
Superior 110-120
Very Superior 120-140
Near genius 140 and over

In general, it can be assumed that the higher the economic standing of an occupational group, the higher would be the average I.Q. keeping other factors constant. It is a comparative rather than an absolute measure of intelligence. It is relative to the standardization group and the condition under which the groups were tested. If the individual’s I.Q. remains the same at yearly age levels it cannot be said that he maintains his relative position in the group.

Distribution of I.Qs. In The Population:
When an intelligence test is administered to thousands of children the same age as the population, their I.Q. can be represented graphically in the following manner: In the Ox axis, the amount of I.Q. is presented. In the OY axis percentage of children in each category of I.Q. is presented.

That is 2.15 percent of children’s scores. I.Q. between 0-70, 13.59 percent between 70 to 85 and 34.13 percent between 5 to 100, and 34.13 percent of children score between 100 and 115 I.Q. In short, the maximum number of children has an I.Q. between 85-115 population.

Critically examine the necessity of infant intelligence tests Q2

Constancy Of I.Q.
The entire concept of I.Q. suggests that an individual will maintain the same relative position in his group as he grows. I.Qs. are constant throughout childhood and adolescence. For one thing, I.Qs. are not very stable during pre-school years (Sontagetal, 1958). The findings of several studies indicate that on the whole I.Q. remains essentially constant.

When other conditions like health, type of education, home situation and other situational facilities do not have a significant change. But in the case of very young children, there may be some deviation from this general rule as their potentialities may still be more variable. Among many studies on the constancy of I.Q., the typical study by Hirt (1945) supports the view that the I.Q. remains relatively constant.

Although a few cases show a change of 50 or more I.Q. points, most studies, comparing the I.Qs. obtained after the pre-school years indicate an average fluctuation of about 5 points plus or minus. Adverse physical conditions like deficient thyroid gland, and insufficient food rand-nutrition may affect them. I.Q. level, though there is no clear-cut evidence in support of these views.

Unusual environmental conditions and lack of normal educational opportunities may lead to the decline in I.Q. to a limited point. But when normal educational opportunities are provided improvement in I.Q. is again found. Good enough (1940) has, however, found a progressive change in the I.Q. of children. The I.Q. changed at yearly intervals like 133,150,143,147 and 151. The child’s school progress also indicated arise.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Questions And Answers

Question 3.
Sternberg’s approach to intelligence.
Answer:
Sternberg’s Triarchic Theory Approach:
Sternberg (1985) has attempted to explain the concept of intelligence through his Triarchic theory or Triarchic model of intelligence. This theory holds that there are three types of human intelligence.

Componential Intelligence:
It emphasizes effectiveness in information processing. Persons who score high on this dimension are able to think analytically as well as critically. Meritorious students come under this category. These persons generally do excellent on standard tests of academic potential. Componential intelligence includes 3 types of components:

  • Knowledge acquisition component
  • Performance components for problem-solving methods or strategies
  • Metacognitive components for selecting a strategy and monitoring programmes towards success.

Experimental Intelligence:
It emphasizes insight and involves the ability to formulate new ideas. Persons scoring high on this dimension of intelligence excel in knowing what information is important in a given situation and they also succeed at combining unrelated facts into a related one. Great scientists and inventors like Einstein, Newton, Freud etc. come under this category.

Various Nobel prize winners in science and medicine come under this category. Experiential intelligence helps in learning new things and then doing them in reality. It is reflected in creative works. It involves the ability to picture the external world by using and manipulating very different experiences in a unique and original manner. Artists, scientists, and fashion designers score high in this type of intelligence.

Contextual Intelligence:
This is the third aspect of Sternberg’s theory. It centres around that intelligence dealing with the outer environment and external world. It means man’s adjustment to his environment and outer or practical world. How we select our external world, how we change or manipulate our environment as per our needs and requirements and finally how capable we are to adjust to it, all come under conceptual intelligence.

This, in short, refers to practical intelligence. Persons who rate high on the dimension of contextual intelligence are highly adaptive in the practical field. They can adapt very quickly to their surroundings and environment. They can perceive quickly what is required from them in a particular situation and what type of behaviours or responses will bring them success and act accordingly.

People who prove to be very successful in their respective fields of life score very high in this component of intelligence. In a party or in a formal or informal meeting these people become the “man/woman of the day”. They succeed in making their presence felt by everybody. Practical management of day-to-day work come under this category. They shape the environment as per their needs.

Successful professionals and businessmen score high in this category. Stenberg’s theory thus puts emphasis on the basic knowledge about cognition. But if only the I.Q. scores are taken into consideration contextual and experimental intelligence will not be traced. Along with I.Q. tests observation of the behaviour of persons in day-to-day life are also essential. While solving mathematical problems a person also uses his past experience which is part of the intellectual ability according to Sternberg.

Sternberg (1985) divides this experience into two parts:

  • Ability to deal with the new situation
  • Development of autonomic mechanisms for processing information.

To emphasise this point Sternberg says “I propose that intelligence involves not merely the ability to learn and reason with new concepts, intelligence is not so much the ability to learn and within familiar conceptual systems as it is the ability to learn and think with new conceptual systems which can then be brought to bear upon already existing knowledge.”

In Sternberg’s view, Intelligence is a purposive adaptation to the appropriate environment and selection of an external environment required for living successfully in the environment. The knowledge acquisition component of Sternberg’s theory deals with adjustment to the external world of the organism.

Thus, intelligent people not only adapt to their existing environment but also make changes in their environment and shape it as and when necessary like social reformer Raj a Ram Mohan Ray or famous novelist Prem Chand, who have brought changes in society through their revolutionary works.

Question 4.
Define the Gardener multiple intelligence approach.
Answer:
Recently a few psychologists working in the area of intelligence have attempted to explain intelligence from different angles. These approaches may also be called models of intelligence.

Gardner’s Multiple Intelligence Approach:
According to Gardner (1983) intelligence includes numerous abilities and each one is equally important. The value of each ability is culturally determined as per the need of society. Thus, Gardner has attempted to explain intelligence in terms of culture. Gardner’s theory of intelligence has seven separate abilities. They are briefly discussed below.

  • Linguistic Ability:
    The verbal ability or the ability of a person to deal with grammar, speech and language etc. refers to linguistic intelligence.

Socio-Mathematical Ability:
It refers to the numerical ability of a person or the ability to deal with numbers and digits, solving arithmetic or problems related to mathematics and logical puzzles. According to this approach, good logicians are also good mathematicians. Logic and mathematics both deal with reasoning ability also. So there is a positive correlation between logic and the manipulation of symbols.

Spatial Ability:
It deals with orientation or ability in space reading. People having good spatial ability are hence good at map reading, visual arts, and playing different games like chess “Passa” which require good spatial ability.

Musical Ability:
The ability to be a good musician refers to musical intelligence which is a kind of very specialized ability. This ability is not found in all persons. Hence every one cannot be a good musician.

Bodily-Kinesthetic Ability:
Dancing, athletics, running, mountaineering, swimming activities and specialisation related to bodily movements even surgery depend upon the above ability. These intellectual abilities are located in the motor cortex. But whether these are abilities or skills is still controversial and needs further research in the area.

Inter-personal Ability:
It refers to the ability to deal with and understand others. Inter-personal intellectual abilities deal with understanding others’ behaviour, intentions, attitudes and temperaments. It is held that a successful salesman or a good sales representative, a politician, a doctor, a public relations officer, an insurance agent or a postal agent etc.

Who prove successful in their job and have good interpersonal abilities. These are commonly called skills, but in Gardner’s opinion, they are abilities by birth. So this type of ability determines the relationship between self and outsiders. But some people.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Questions And Answers

Question 5.
Discuss the studies on the role of the environment in intelligence development.
Answer:
Some studies have been conducted in Odisha on the role of the environment on intellectual development. Das, jaw chuck and Panda (1968) conducted a study on the high and low economic groups of Brahmin and Ilarijan children (High and low castes). They found that the poor Haorijan children scored lowest in the cognitive tests in comparison to children of all other groups.

Though the rich Harijan children performed better than the poor Harij children, they scored lower scores than the Brahim (High caste) children. Rath, Dash, and Dash (1973) conducted a comparative study on the cognitive and intellectual development of some Brahmin, Adivasi and Harij children of Odisha.

Das and Singh’s (1976) study on rural and urban Brahmin and Harijan children indicated that there was no difference in the intelligence of urban grade, Brahmin and Harijan children. But the rural Brahmin children scored higher in intelligence tests than the rural Harijan children. Jack and Mohanti (1974) conducted a study on Low Socioeconomic status and progressive Retardation in cognitive skills.

They found that children of high SES performed better in every respect in cognitive skills. Surprisingly, they found that lower SES children of higher age groups showed poor performance in comparison to lower age groups. Thus they found that children of higher age groups of low SES show slower progress in cognitive development in comparison to higher SES groups.

Culture:
There is very little empirical study on the influence of culture on the development of intelligence. But it has been observed that different cultures lead to the development of different patterns of ability. This is because a particular type of environment requires a particular type of adaptive behaviour. For this adjustment, one has to accelerate the development of certain abilities.

In another culture, certain other abilities are developed. ?Comparison of abilities necessary in different cultures proves this fact. In this connection, the study conducted by Straus (1951) is notable where intelligence test scores of college freshmen in Ceylon and the United States were compared. The Ceylonese students scored consistently higher scores than the United States students.

Secondly, the Ceylonese students scored higher in the language items compared to the Americans, although the test was given in English. This higher score on the Ceylonese people intelligence test is attributed to the emphasis on verbal achievement in Ceylonese culture. The influence of cultural factors on intelligence was also proved during I World War. In general, blacks did poorly than whites.

Sex Differences:
Although early studies do not point out any striking difference in the I.Q. of boys and girls, some recent studies indicate several interesting sex differences in intelligence. By using modem measuring instruments primary mental abilities have been measured. In a study by Hobson (1947) primary mental ability tests were conducted on three successive junior high classes in Brookline.

Results showed boys being superior in spatial intelligence, and in rote memory, reasoning and word fluency. Boys did better than girls in verbal comprehension. But no significant difference in numerical ability was noticed. Havighurst and Breese (1949) administered the Thurstone battery of primary mental abilities test to all thirteen years old children in amid western community of 6,000 persons.

Girls surpassed boys in number, word, fluency, reasoning and memory. Boys did better than girls in spatial ability. No significant difference was found in the verbal comprehension test. A study on college students by Sweeney (1953) showed men surpassed women in solving problems which required logic and ingenuity. All these studies indicate that girls show superiority in some abilities and boys in others.

These differences cancel each other when general tests are used leading to no general difference between the two sexes in the overall level of intelligence. However, the sex differences in these specific abilities are attributed by some to basic constitutional differences partly and partly to socio-cultural training. A study by Deborah (1977) indicates that the better spatial ability of men may be related to their physiological differences from women.

Health:
Innumerable studies show that health is positively correlated with intelligence. In other words, keeping other factors constant, good general health goes with high intelligence, because superior heredity is related to physical and mental superiority as pointed out by Terman (1925). The relationship between secretions from the endocrine glands and intelligence is not yet clearly established.

As such, there is no evidence, for the common belief that pituitary disorder lowers intelligence. Scholar (1938) has found that persons with a severe pituitary deficiency may actually be above average intelligence. The belief that intelligence does not improve by improving the diets of undernourished children has been supported by investigations on the effects of nutrition on intelligence.

But it has been found that a child’s intelligence may be affected by the quality of the mother’s diet during pregnancy (Harrell, Woodyard and Gates, 1955). The view of some that children suffer from tonsils and adenoids, decayed teeth and rickets have how intelligence is not supported by recent studies.

Family Size:
A low negative correlation has been found between intelligence and the number of siblings particularly in lower-income groups as found by Gille (1954), and Heuyer (1950).

Social Deprivation:
According to some, social experiences are of tremendous importance to intellectual development and this socio-cultural deprivation lowers I.Q. An investigation conducted by Skeels (1966) supplies evidence for this. He found that when the social environment of some children was changed, they received additional stimulation in the new environment.

Their average I.Q. increased by 28 points while the I.Q. of the children who remained in the deprived social environment (orphanage) dropped by 20 points. But this study has raised certain controversial issues regarding the relationship between social deprivation and intellectual development.

It has, however, been concluded that “the effects of social deprivation on the development of intelligence depends in part on how long it is endured”. When children live under deprived circumstances, it may not have any visible effect on their intellectual development, but deprivation for a longer period is assumed to have permanent and significant detrimental effects on intellectual development.

Socio-economic status:
People belonging to upper-class families get more intellectual stimulation and enriched environmental facilities in comparison to persons belonging to the lower class. This is believed to influence their intelligence level in a positive direction. Data collected during Second World War by Harrell and Harell (1945) show that people with higher I.Qs usually fill up professional posts.

The enriched environment included varied factors such as greater availability of educational and instructional materials like books charts, diagrams, and instruments and high parental aspirations. Moreover, the study by Yando, Seitz and Zigler (1979) indicates that children of higher and lower SES bring different attitudes and styles to problem-solving that could affect their performance in intelligence tests.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Questions And Answers

Question 6.
The determinants of intelligence or factors influencing intelligence.
Answer:
The determinants of intelligence also refer to the factors related to mental development. It is found that in the general population some are of superior intelligence, most are of average intelligence and some are below normal intelligence or are mentally retarded. What are the factors which lead to such variations in human intelligence?

Obviously, heredity and environment are two chief variables which influence the growth and development of intelligence. Intelligence varies with varying influences of heredity and environment. As observations and empirical findings show intelligence is determined by both heredity and environment.

Hereditary Factors:
Several studies have been conducted on identical twins to determine the role of heredity in the development of intelligence. Two important studies may be mentioned in this connection. Newman, Freeman and Ilolzinger (1937) took 19 pairs of identical twins, who were reared separately through adaption into different foster homes.

The findings showed that the intelligence test scores of identical twins reared separately were almost as similar to two scores achieved by the same person at different times. Besides, they were mostly like identical twins reared together. Thus, these investigators concluded that the possession of identical heredity was a factor operating system to determining the development of similar intelligence.

Another recent study was done by Shields (1962). He took 88 pairs of identical twins of which half were reared together and the other half were reared in different homes. The correlations between their intelligence test scores were 77 for those reared together and 76 for those brought up separately. This proves the role of heredity and not an environment in the development of intelligence.

In some other studies, the I.Q. of the child is studied by keeping him in a separate environment, particularly at an early age (pre-school age). But it retains its constancy thereafter even when there is a significant change in the environment. The constancy of I.Q, in spite of the change in the environment, supports the role of strong hereditary influences. A study by Blewett (1954) indicates that intelligence is largely determined by heredity.

Jensen’S Theory:
Prof. Arthur Jensen’s article “How much can we boost: I.Q. and Scholastic achievement” published in Harvard Educational Review (1969) brought a revolution and led to a lot of debate on the role of heredity in the development of intelligence. Jensen has evaluated the findings of ‘Project Head Start’ conducted as a compensatory project to help the socially disadvantaged Negroes and Asiatic origin lower class people.

By means of special education programmes, provision of different incentives, enriched environmental facilities etc. In Jensen’s opinion because of these programmes, there has been no improvement in the intelligence Of disadvantaged and underdeveloped children. Since there has been no cognitive development, it is no use of continuing these developmental programmes, he opined.

But many thought this was an attack on the developmental work of the minority groups, or more correctly, an attack on the minority groups themselves. Jensen states that the I.Q. of Blacks is always less than that of Whites, the reason being that, the standard of living of black people is always lower than that of whites.

Low socio-economic status and deprived environmental facilities for ages have been responsible for this genetic difference in the I.Q. of blacks and whites, Jenson stated. Taking the help of several investigations Jensen has shown that abstract reasoning differs significantly on the basis of class and caste. Jensen’s theory has been severely criticised by many.

Whitten and Kagan (1969) have viewed this theory as “Jensen’s dangerous half-truth”. They hold that there are many other basic factors responsible for the difference in I.Q. of the Negroes and whites than actual intelligence itself and one of them is the cultural variation undoubtedly, they say. Secondly, they say that at least this compensatory project has been very successful in Israel. If it is not successful in other places it is due to organisational defects, they assert. More research in this area is necessary.

Environmental Factors:
Although strong hereditary influence on the growth of intelligence is obvious from these studies, they do not necessarily conclude that poor environmental facilities don’t retard the development of intelligence.

Question 7.
Define intelligence tests and individual tests and verbal or non-verbal tests.
Answer:
Intelligent tests:
Alford Binet (1867 -1911) is the first person who devised systematic tests to measure the intelligence of children the lie was particularly interested in the intellectual differences among individuals. Binet (1905), a french psychologist designed the very first test of intelligence at the request of the Paris school authorities to help them to select children of low intelligence, who could not gain from attending the gene classes in school.

Lewin Terman (1877 -1956) of Stanford University revised Binet’s scale intended for school children in the United States. Tennant, in fact, is responsible for bringing the Binet Test into the mainstream of academic life in America. This revised test was known as Stanford Binet Test. This test was similar to Binet’s 1911 version except that Terman made some changes and added the age placement of many items according to the performance of children in the United States. The test was standardized for the U.S.A. children. This Stanford-Binet test became the model for many intelligence tests developed after that.

Individual Tests:
Particularly those non-verbal tests which require the use of apparatus, become individual tests because it is not possible to conduct tests on 50-60 people using 50-60 pieces of equipment simultaneously. Since most of the non-verbal tests need paper and pencil, they are usually conducted in groups.

Verbal And Non-Verbal Tests:
All verbal tests require tire use of language, understanding and literacy. To avoid the limitations of verbal tests, when the person is illiterate and is of a different language, non-verbal or performance tests are applied. In non-verbal tests, some kinds of motor activity are involved. Motor activities of different difficulty levels are prepared so that they could measure different levels of intelligence. Some examples of verbal and non-verbal tests are given below:

Verbal Tests:

  • Opposition in a fixed time limit – Opposite of certain words are to be given.
  • Verbal comprehension – Meaning and short explanations have to be given for the words presented in the test.
  • Analogies
  • Classifications
  • Reasoning Test
  • Following directions

Non-Verbal Tests:

  • Form Board
  • Picture completion
  • Drawing test
  • Alexander’s Pass long test
  • Cube Construction test
  • Block design test, picture arrangement test
  • Progressive matrices test
  • Chatteijee’s non-verbal test of intelligence.

Bhogle, Sudha and Jai Prakash Indira (1992) in a study called the performance of Indian children on the Coloured Progressive Matrices developed norms for Raven’s Coloured Progressive Matrices (RCPM) for Indian children by administering it to 248 male and 252 female subjects in the age range of 5-12 years. Age-wise norms and working percentiles have been reported. Comparisons with original norms have been made. The performance of the children in the present sample is found to be comparable to that of the standardized sample.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Questions And Answers

Question 8.
Discuss theories of intelligence.
Answer:
There are several theories that explain the components of intelligence. There are:
Two-factors theory of spearman:
Spearman (1904) one of the greatest British Psychologists initiated the two-Tractor theory of intelligence. lie held that intelligence consisted of two factors, a general factor (G) and several specific factors (S). Spearman said that there was a general ability employed by people while adjusting to different sorts of intellectual tests. This is a general factor-specific ability called specific factors.

Theory of intelligence by Thorndike:
Thorndike an American Psychologist of eminence holds a different opinion regarding the theory of intelligence. In place of holding a single general factor common to all mental activities, he considers different kinds of mental activities as highly specific in themselves, though they have certain elements in common. These common elements are responsible for the correlation between different performances shown by the same person.

Thorndike holds that the common elements don’t make the whole of intelligence and intelligence into different kinds

  • the ability to deal with ideas and symbols
  • concrete intelligence or the ability to handle concrete things and situations
  • social intelligence or the ability to get on with people.

Theory of Intelligence by Cattell:
According to Raymond B called general intelligence can be divided into two independent parts fluid intelligence and crystallized intelligence.

Points to remember

Question 1.
Nature and operational definition of Intelligence.
Answer:
Geeta is the brightest child I ever saw. Look at her big black eyes; how sharp and expressive they are! She learns a tiling almost before you have told it her. Oh! see how smart Sushil is, you would think he was two years instead of one year. He is S-O- 0 intelligent, so sharp. These are the common expressions we hear from parents, teachers, neighbours and friends regarding various children.

Question 2.
Sternberg’s Triarchic Theory Approach.
Answer:
Sternberg (1985) has attempted to explain the concept of intelligence through his Triarchic theory or Triarchic model of intelligence. This theory holds that there are three types of human intelligence.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Questions And Answers

Question 3.
Intelligent tests.
Answer:
Alfred Binet (1867 -1911) is the first person who devised systematic tests to measure the intelligence of children. He was particularly interested in the intellectual differences among individuals. Binet (1905), a french psychologist designed the very first test of intelligence at the request of the Paris school authorities to help them to select children of low intelligence, who could not gain from attending the general classes in school.

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CHSE Odisha Class 11 Foundations of Education Unit 4 Method of Teaching Maths Questions and Answers

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CHSE Odisha 11th Class Foundations of Education Unit 4 Method of Teaching Maths Questions and Answers

Long Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Discuss the Aims and Objectives of teaching Mathematics.
Answer:
The knowledge of mathematics is very essential for everybody. The most important aims and objectives of mathematics are discussed below.

To develop the thinking and reasoning, power of the child:
The power of thinking and reasoning is very much essential for an. individual to lead a disciplined and well-adjusted life. These powers can be developed by knowing mathematics.

To provide a suitable discipline to the mind:
Mathematics knowledge makes the mind of the learners disciplined which is essential for leading a healthy social life.

To develop an art of living:
Mathematics prepares children for economic, purposeful, productive, creative, and constructive life. The children learn an act of effective living.

To acquaint the learners with cultures:
Mathematics is the backbone of culture. So by studying mathematics an individual becomes acquainted with his own culture. So cultural development is possible.

To prepare the pupil for various professions:
The children are prepared to enter into various professions of engineering, cashiers, statisticians, accountants, auditors, bankers, etc.

To prepare the students for various higher educational centers:
Mathematics forms the basis of many educational courses and as engineering physical science etc.

To develop the habits of concentration, self-reliance, and discovery:
The habits of concentration, self-reliance, and power to discover new things, new laws, and principles in students are created by mathematics.

To create a love for hard work:
Mathematics as a subject needs consistent hard work. This has helped the student to undertake hard work for a longer period.

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CHSE Odisha Class 11 Foundations of Education Unit 4 Method of Teaching Maths Questions and Answers

Question 2.
Discuss briefly the inductive-deductive method of teaching mathematics. Bring a difference between the inductive and deductive methods.
Answer:
“Inductive-deductive method is the combination of two separate method-inductive and deductive methods.
Inductive method:-
The inductive method is based on induction. Induction is proving a universal truth or theorem by showing that if it is true of any particular case, it is also true for the next case in the same serial order. In this method, we proceed from particular to general, from concrete cases to abstract cases, and from specific to general formulas. In adopting this method, the students are required not to accept the already, discovered formula without knowing the formula by adopting inductive reasoning.

Example No.1:-
The students may be asked to construct a few triangles of various sizes and shapes. They may be asked to measure and sum the angle in each case. Then the sum will come to be the same in all cases. i.e, the sum in all cases will come to be two right angles. Hence, the students may conclude through induction that the sum of these angles of a triangle is equal to two right angles.

Example No.2:- Suppose we find out the simple interest of Rs. 400/- in four years at 5% per annum. It will be equal to Rs.80/-

Or, S.I=\(\frac{400 \times 5 \times 4}{100}\)=80.00

Similarly, the simple interest Rs. 500/- in a year at 6% per annum will be 90.00.

Or, S.I=\(\frac{500 \times 6 \times 3}{100}\)=90.00

From the above, two examples the students can evolve a rule that,

Simple Interest=

C:\Users\Shaheena\Desktop\Discuss briefly the inductive-deductive method of teaching mathematics Q2.png

S.I=\(\frac{\text { PRT }}{100}\)

Deductive Method :
The deduction is the chief generalized form. In this method, one follows deductive reasoning which is just the opposite of inductive reasoning. Abstract ideas are preceded by concrete experience. The students memorize the different formulas and then apply them to solve a particular problem.

Examples- If the teacher wants to teach the calculation of simple interest in the class the formula for calculating interest to the students.

i.e. S.L =\(\frac{\text { PRT }}{100}\)

Question 2.
Explain with examples the analytic and synthetic methods of teaching mathematics. What are the merits and demerits?
Answer:
Analytic Method:
Analytic means breaking up the problem in such a manner that it ultimately gets connected with some known. The method proceeds from known to known. The analysis is the process of unfolding the problem to know the hidden aspects. We have to begin with what is to be found out and then proceed to further steps and possibilities that may concern the unknown with the known, the desired result is found out.

Merits of Analytic Method:
The Analytic Method has the following merits.
It is a logical method that leaves no doubt and it convinces the learner. The steps are developed in a general manner. Each step has a reason and justification. It facilitates understanding and creates an urge to discover facts. As the students face questions is what a statement is into simple elements they grapple with the problem confidently and intelligently. He gains competencies and skills.

Demerits:

  • It is a lengthy method.
  • It is very difficult to acquire efficiency and speed.
  • It may not be applicable to all topics equally.

Example

If \(\frac{a}{b}=\frac{c}{d}\) prove that \(\frac{a c-2 b^2}{b}=\frac{c^2-2 b d}{d}\)

∴\(\frac{a c-2 b}{b}=\frac{c^2-2 b d}{d}\)

By cross multiplication

acd – 2b2d = be2 – 2b2d

Cancellation of the common quality -2b²d from both sides can further he canceled.
acd = bc2 will be true
If this is if ad = bc arranged in a more systematic form, ad = bc will be true.

\(\frac{\mathrm{a}}{\mathrm{b}}=\frac{\mathrm{c}}{\mathrm{d}}\) which is given is thus true.
So, we can say that,

\(\frac{\mathrm{ac}-\mathrm{b}^2}{\mathrm{~d}}=\frac{\mathrm{c}^2-2 \mathrm{bd}}{\mathrm{d}}\) is also true.

Synthetic Method :
The synthetic method is just the opposite of the analytic method. One has to proceed from known to unknown in this method. Synthesis implies the placing together of the parts to get the solution. One has to start from what is known as given and proceed toward the unknown part of the problem, thus, the unknown information becomes known and free. In practice, synthesis is complementary to analysis.

Merits :

  • This is a logical method.
  • It is short and elegant.
  • It glorifies memory.

Demerits :
It leaves a long number of doubts in minds of readers and offers no explanation for them. As the reader gets no satisfactory explanation for his doubts while solving the problem, he will be perplexed when faced with a need problem. He may not recall the steps of synthesis. There is no provision for a complete understanding of the method. Discovery and thinking have no place in this method. Memory work and homework are too heavy.

Example:
Let us take the same example.

\(\frac{a}{b}=\frac{c}{d}\) then prove that \(\frac{a-2 b^2}{b}=\frac{c^2-2 b d}{d}\)

We have to start with the given or known fact \(\frac{a}{b}=\frac{c}{d}\)

∴\(\frac{2 b}{c}\) be subtracted from both sides

∴\(\frac{a}{b}=\frac{2 b}{c}=\frac{c}{d}=\frac{2 b}{c}\)

Or, \(\frac{a c-2 b^2}{b c}=\frac{c^2-2 b d}{c d}\)

\(\frac{a-2 b^2}{b}=\frac{c^2-2 b d}{d}\)

(Cancelling from both sides)
Thus identity is proved.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Foundations of Education Unit 4 Method of Teaching Maths Questions and Answers

Question 3.
Explain the problem-solving methods of teaching mathematics. What are the merits and demerits?
Answer:
The problem-solving method aims at presenting and repurposing the existence of problems in the teaching-learning situation. A problem is a sort of difficulty which has to be overcome to reach the goal. It may be a purely mental difficulty. The problem-solving methods aim at presenting the knowledge to be learned in the form of a problem.

It begins with a problematic situation and consists of continuous meaningful well-integrated activity. Mathematics is a subject of problems. Its teaching and learning depend on solving innumerable problems. Efficiency and ability in solving problems is a guarantee in learning this subject. The procedure of problem-solving is (almost like the project method. It can be taken the form of an inductive deductive method.

Steps to the situation :
Sensing the problem, interpreting, defining, and delimiting the problem. Gathering data in a systematic manner, organizing and evaluating the data, formulating tentative solutions, arriving at the true and correct solution, and verifying the results. It is a research-like method that involves scientific thinking as a process of learning.

How it is employed :
Suppose finding the volume of a cylinder is a problem before the class. Its formula is to be developed on the basis of the earlier formula for the volume of a thing while analyzing the problem it gets connected with the previous knowledge that the volume of any regular solid can be found by multiplying the area of its base with the height of the object.

The area of the base of the cylinder is found by the only known formula a new the results are checked. The solution to the problem and the result comes from the students. The teacher remains in the background and directs or guides the students from the position.

Merits of problem-solving method:
This method satisfies the laws of teaching. It involves reflective thinking. So it stimulates thinking and learning through self-effort, reasoning, and critical judgment in the students. It develops qualities of imitative and self-dependence in the students. It is a stimulating method, The problem is a challenge.

Once it is properly recognized it acts as a great motivating force and directs the students, attention, and activity. It serves individual differences. A student can solve any number of problems in a specific and make progress accordingly. It is especially suitable for mathematics which is a subject of problems. It develops desirable study habits in the students.

Limitations:
The process is purely literary. It only needs a mental solution. Life problems -need some physical activity also. All problems cannot be solved by this method. The method does not suit the students in lower classes. Teachers, the burden becomes heavy. Textbooks written in the traditional style do not help in the use of this method. There is an absence of suitable books for reference and guidance.

Question 4.
Discuss the steps in lesson planning.
Answer:
J.F. Herbert has suggested six important steps in planning a lesson. After his name, those steps are called “Herbartion” steps.
These six steps are:

  • Preparation
  • Introduction
  • Presentation
  • Recapitulation (comprehension)
  • Summarisation
  • Application

Preparation:
The teacher has to prepare himself and the students for the lesson. He has to formulate the objectives, select the content matters from the textbook, select the teaching aids and prepare the lesson accordingly.

Introduction:
The main purpose of the introduction is to motivate the pupils. The teacher has to test the previous knowledge of the students by asking some questions. Then the teacher can know the background knowledge is to be linked with the previous knowledge through the introduction. A teacher can introduce a reason by various means such as:-

  • asking question
  • showing pictures and models
  • citing an example
  • dramatization
  • quoting a dialogue

Presentation:
It is the most important step in the lesson. During this step, the teacher presents some new ideas to the pupils. Questioning discussion, demonstration of aids, active pupil participation, and blackboard work are some of the essential elements of the presentation. The objectives of the lesson determine the nature of the presentation.

Recapitulation:
The teacher should ascertain to what extent the students have understood the topic taught by him. To test their understanding and comprehension the teacher has to put some questions. On this topic, after the presentation is over, this will also help the teacher to know whether his teaching is effective or not.

Summarisation :
The teacher has to associate and generalize the subject matter taught in the lesson in forming a blackboard. Summary, a formula or a rule ‘or a skeleton chart of the important learning points. The step completes the presentation by providing the gist of the topic.

Application :
At this step, the students make use to acquire, knowledge in familiar situations. It tests the validity of the generalization, rule principles or formula arrived at by the pupils at the end of the topic. Through the application, the new knowledge acquired by the students is retained in their minds for a longer period.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Foundations of Education Unit 4 Method of Teaching Maths Questions and Answers

Question 5.
Six aims and objectives of Mathematics:
Answer:
It develops the power of thinking and reasoning. It helps the child to solve mathematical problems. It develops the self-confidence and habit of concentration. To help the child to develop the power of expression, and appreciation. It enables the child to go through the transaction of coins. It helps the child to lead a career as an accountant, auditor, engineer, and scientist.

Question 6.
Analytic method:
Answer:

  • It proceeds from unknown to known.
  • It is a process of thinking.
  • It demands exploration.
  • It is a method for. thinkers and discoverers.
  • It develops originality.
  • It is informal, psychological, and based on heuristic lines.

Question 7.
Aids used in teaching mathematics:
Answer:
Visual aids:
Samples, umbrellas, stick-rounded things, dolls, toys, balloons, plates blackboard, models, etc.

Audio Aids:
Radio, gramophone, tape recorders, etc.

Audio-visual aids:
T.V. and films. Through these aids, subjects are taught by experts. These are effective aids in teaching mathematics.

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CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Objective Questions

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CHSE Odisha 11th Class Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Objective Questions

Multiple Choice Questions With Answers

Question 1.
The intelligence of a person can be accurately assessed from his _________.
(a) eyes
(b) performance
(c) conversation
(d) intelligence test scores
Answer:
(d) intelligence test scores

Question 2.
I.Q. is calculated by the following formula
(a) I.Q=\(\frac{\text { Age }}{\text { Mental Age }}\)x100

(b) I.Q\(\frac{\text { Mental Age }}{\text { Chronological Age }}\)x100

(c) I.Q=\(\frac{\text { Chronological Age }}{\text { Mental Age }} \)x100

(d) I.Q=\(\frac{\text { Mental Age }}{\text { Chronological Age }}\)
Answer:
(b) I.Q=\(\frac{\text { Mental Age }}{\text { Chronological Age }}\)x100

Question 3.
The term intelligence is derived from the _________.
(a) Latin word
(b) Greek word
(c) German word
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Latin word

Question 4.
Intelligence refers to the _________.
(a) Effective capacity
(b) thinking capacity
(c) Cognitive capacity
(d) Conative capacity
Answer:
(d) Conative capacity

Question 5.
That intelligence is a capacity of the ‘O’ to adjust itself to an increasingly complex environment is believed by _________.
(a) Gallon
(b) Spencer
(c) Binet
(d) Spearman
Answer:
(b) Spencer

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Objective Questions

Question 6.
The two-factor theory of intelligence was proposed by _________.
(a) Guilford
(b) Thurstone
(c) Stanford
(d) Spearman
Answer:
(d) Spearman

Question 7.
Intelligence is influenced by _________.
(a) Hereditary factors
(b) Environmental factors
(c) Organic factors
(d) both hereditary and environmental factors
Answer:
(d) both hereditary and environmental factors

Question 8.
Accurate assessment of intelligence is possible through _________.
(a) Observation of behavior
(b) Abstract performance
(c) Mathematical ability
(d) Standardised intelligence test
Answer:
(d) Standardised intelligence tes

Question 9.
Edward’s personal preference schedule is a _________.
(a) Open-end inventory
(b) True/False questionnaire
(c) Forced choice inventory
(d) Multiple-choice inventory
Answer:
(d) Multiple-choice inventory

Question 10.
The factors of 16 PF questionnaires were selected through _________.
(a) Chi-square
(b) Factor analysis
(c) Rating
(d) Rank difference method
Answer:
(b) Factor analysis

Question 11.
When no language is used in an intelligence test it is called a _________.
(a) Performance test
(b) Non-performance test
(c) Verbal test
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Performance test

Question 12.
When the suitability of a particular person for a specific job is to be assessed he should be administered with _________.
(a) Power test
(b) Intelligence test
(c) Aptitude test
(d) Performance test
Answer:
(c) Aptitude test

Question 13.
A performance test is that which _________.
(a) Uses language
(b) Does not use language
(c) Assess special ability
(d) Assesses mechanical ability
(b) Does not use language

Question 14.
The progressive Matrices test is a test of _________.
(a) Aptitude
(b) Intelligence
(c) Attitude
(d) Language
Answer:
(b) Intelligence

Question 15.
Children’s progressive matrices test is a _________.
(a) Verbal test
(b) Non-verbal test
(c) Imagination test
(d) Creativity test
Answer:
(b) Non-verbal test

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Objective Questions

Question 16.
The capacity to perceive the relationship between the means and the end is called _________.
(a) Imagination
(b) Sensation
(c) Intelligence
(d) Learning
Answer:
(c) Intelligence

Question 17.
The first group test of intelligence was _________.
(a) W.A.T.
(b) T.A.T.
(c) The Standard Binet
(d) The Army Alpha
Answer:
(c) The Standard Binet

Question 18.
MMPI is a test of _________.
(a) Intelligence
(b) Personality
(c) Aptitude
(d) Interest
Answer:
(b) Personality

Question 19.
Rorschach test is a test of _________.
(a) Intelligence
(b) Power
(c) Personality
(d) Aptitude
Answer:
(c) Personality

Question 20.
Intelligence is the aggregate or global capacity of the individual to act purposely, to think rationally, and to deal effectively with his environment. This definition of intelligence was given by _________.
(a) Binet
(b) Thurstone
(c) Wechsler
(d) Spearman
Answer:
(c) Wechsler

Question 21.
The concept of mental age was introduced by _________.
(a) Wechsler
(b) Spearman
(c) Binet
(d)Galton
Answer:
(c) Binet

Question 22.
The adult intelligence scale Of Wechsler constitutes of _________.
(a) Non-verbal scale
(b) Verbal scale
(c) Verbal and performance scale
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) Verbal and performance scale

Question 23.
Binet was a/an _________psychologist.
(a) French
(b) Germany
(c) English
(d)American
Answer:
(a) French

Question 24.
Binet with the help of another collaborator devised a scale consisting of 80 tests arranged from the simplest to the most complex. Who is that another collaborator?
(a) Galton
(b) Simen
(c) Terman
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Simen

Question 25.
Binet and Simon revised the 1905 test scale in the year _________.
(a) 1908
(b) 1910
(c) 1913
(d) 1917
Answer:
(a) 1908

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Objective Questions

Question 26.
When the M.A. and the C.A. are the same, the I.Q. is _________.
(a) 95
(b) 98
(c) 100
Answer:
(c) 100

Question 27.
Mental age is calculated on the basis of _________.
(a) Chronological age
(b) Mental ability as calculated from the intelligence test score
(c) Ability calculated from the test of creativity
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Mental ability as calculated from the intelligence test score

Question 28.
Raven’s progressive Matrices test is _________.
(a) Verbal test
(b) Performance test
(c) Non-performance test
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Performance test

Question 29.
Raymond cattle’s IPTAtest is a _________.
(a) Culture fair intelligence test
(b) Culture-free intelligence test
(c) Structural test of intelligence
(d) Personality test
Answer:
(a) Culture fair intelligence test

Question 30.
The process of classifying all intellectual abilities into a systematic framework has been developed by _________.
(a) Guilford
(b) Stanford
(c) Jensen
(d) Thorndike
Answer:
(a) Guilford

Question 31.
The structure of intellect can be classified into _________.
(a) Three different ways
(b) Four different ways
(c) Five different ways
Answer:
(a) Three different ways

Question 32.
Intelligence reaches its peak by the age of 16-20 years and remains at the same level up to _________.
(a) 40 years
(b) 45 years
(c) 50 years
(d) 60 years
Answer:
(b) 45 years

Question 33.
Two children of the same age will have the same _________.
(a) Intelligence Quotient
(b) Mental age
(c) Chronological age
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Chronological age

Question 34.
Intelligence is the ability to _________.
(a) Perceive new situations and learn
(b) To adjust oneself to the new situations
(c) To think about the present situation
(d) To do all the three above
Answer:
(d) To do all the three above

Question 35.
Most of the infant intelligence tests are meant to measure _________.
(a) Intelligence
(b) Sensory motor skills
(c) Perceptual ability
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Sensory motor skills

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Objective Questions

Question 36.
The score obtained by an infant in the infant intelligence test is called _________.
(a) Intelligence Quotient
(b) Mental Age
(c) Development Quotient
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Development Quotient

Question 37.
Mental age is a measure of the level of intelligence _________.
(a) Specific level
(b) Absolute
(c) General
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Absolute

Question 38.
The most outstanding study conducted to compare the Developmental Quotient and I.Q. of children was conducted by _________.
(a) fleidbrelder
(b) Gessel
(c) Bayley and Schaefer
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Gessel

Question 39.
The very earliest tests of intelligence were based on the assumption that intelligence has a _________.
(a) Physiological basis
(b) Hereditary basis
(c) Environmental basis
(d) Psychological basis
Answer:
(b) Hereditary basis

Question 40.
_________believed that the fine-tuning of the nervous systems of intelligent people extended to their bodies and made them physically vigorous.
(a) Binet
(b) Galton
(c) Simon
(d) Wechsler
Answer:
(b) Galton

Question 41.
Binet had developed a number of intelligence tests by _________.
(a)1890
(b)1900
(c)1905
(d)1910
Answer:
(c)1905

Question 42.
The book “Experimental study of intelligence” authored by Binet was published in _________.
(a) 1900
(b) 1903
(c) 1905
(d) 1913
Answer:
(c) 1905

Question 43.
The mental age is computed by first finding the age level at which the child passed all the test items which is called the _________.
(a) Basal age
(b) Fractional age
(c) Chronological age
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Basal age

Question 44.
The _________Psychologist Louis Stem suggested the division of mental age by Chronological age to asses relative intelligence.
(a) American
(b) Germanic
(c) Swiss
(d) English
Answer:
(c) Swiss

Question 45.
Terman issued the first American revision of the Binet scale in _________which was called the Stanford Binet intelligence scale.
(a) 1910
(b) 1912
(c) 1916
(d) 1918
Answer:
(a) 1910

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Objective Questions

Question 46.
Intelligence tests are so constructed that the average person will receive an I.Q. score of about _________.
(a) 90
(b) 100
(c) 105
(d) 110
Answer:
(b) 100

Question 47.
An I.Q. of _________indicates the role of the intellectual development of the average person in the population.
(a) 95
(b) 100
(c) 105
(d) 110
Answer:
(b) 100

Question 48.
A person having an I.Q. of 55 is called _________.
(a) Imbecile
(b) Moron
(c) Idiot
(d) Boarder line case
Answer:
(b) Moron

Question 49.
When the number and representatives of the individuals in the standardizing sample increased the adequacy of the standardizing procedure.
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) Does not change
(d) Remains moderate
Answer:
(b) Increases

Question 50.
That intelligence is best conceptualized as a large number of independent abilities held by__________.
(a) Galton
(b) Cattell
(c) Thorndike
(d) Guilford
Answer:
(c) Thorndike

Question 51.
One of the most elaborate schemes for classifying intelligence into specific abilities was proposed by _________.
(a) Gallon
(b) Guilford
(c) Cattell
(d) Hebb
Answer:
(d) Hebb

Question 52.
Guilford made a unique contribution to the understanding of intelligence by including in his model the operation of thinking _________.
(a) Convergent thinking
(b) Divergent thinking
(c) Abstract thinking
Answer:
(b) Divergent thinking

Question 53.
Guilford’s “Plot Title Test” is an example of a test of _________.
(a) Divergent thinking
(b) Convergent thinking
(c) Creative thinking
(d) Autistic thinking
Answer:
(a) Divergent thinking

Question 54.
The ability to think abstractly was the essential ingredient of intellectual effectiveness. This was the view of _________.
(a)Terman
(b)Galton
(c) Guilford
(d)Thurstone
Answer:
(a)Terman

Question 55.
_________ holds that intelligence consists of specific cognitive abilities that enable an individual to adapt to the environment.
(a) IIebb
(b) Guilford
(c) Gallon
(d) Charlesworth
Answer:
(c) Gallon

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Objective Questions

Question 56.
That intelligence changes with age was the general observation made for the first time by _________.
(a) Spearman
(b) Gallon
(c) Binet
(d) Simen
Answer:
(d) Simen

Question 57.
Most of the infant intelligence tests are constructed to measure _________.
(a) Perceptual skill
(b) Sensory motor skill
(c) Cognitive ability
(d) Abstract thinking
Answer:
(b) Sensory motor skill

Question 58.
The most important infant intelligence test was developed by _________.
(a) Clark
(b) Charles Worth
(c) Gessel
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Gessel

Question 59.
The infant intelligence scale developed by Gessel is called _________.
(a) Differential Schedule
(b) Generalised Schedule
(c) Developmental Schedule
(d) Specified Schedule
Answer:
(c) Developmental Schedule

Question 60.
Gessel’s tests measure not intelligence but the child’s level of _________.
(a) Growth
(b) Emotion
(c) Adaptive Capacity
(d) Divergent thinking
Answer:
(a) Growth

Question 61.
In Gessel’s test, the score obtained by a child is called _________.
(a) Developmental Quotient
(b) Intelligence Quotient
(c) Creativity Quotient
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Developmental Quotient

Question 62.
Turnstone identified _______ primary mental abilities.
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 9
(d) 11
Answer:
(b) 7

Question 63.
Guilford proposed a structure of intellect containing items _________.
(a) 100
(b) 110
(c) 120
(d) 130
Answer:
(c) 120

Question 64.
Intelligence develops most rapidly during _________.
(a) Infancy
(b) Childhood
(c) Adulthood
(d) Late adulthood
Answer:
(b) Childhood

Question 65.
Boys score _________ in intelligence tests compared to girls.
(a) Higher
(b) Similar
(c) Lower
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Similar

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Objective Questions

Question 66.
Multifactor theory of intelligence is given by _________.
(a) Binet
(b) Spearman
(c) Guilford
(d) Thurstone
Answer:
(d) Thurstone

True Or False Type Questions

Question 1.
All intelligence tests also test creativity. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Intelligence tests are measured of both intellectual ability and achievement although the emphasis clearly strives to be on the former. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Culture-free intelligence tests measure intelligence more accurately than culturally biased tests. Culturally unfair tests do not under asses a child’s intelligence. (True /False)
Answer:
True

Question 4.
IPAT culture fair intelligence test was devised by Thurstone. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 5.
It is erroneous to define intelligence on the basis of abilities related to school performance. (True/False)
Answer:
True

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Objective Questions

Question 6.
Standard intelligence tests fail to measure all the cognitive abilities that contribute to intelligence, broadly defined. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 7.
I.Q. is only a measure of intelligence ‘B’. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 8.
According to Ilebb, the term intelligence ‘A refers to an innate potentiality for the development of intellectual capacities, and intelligence ‘B’ to die level of that development at a later time when the S’s intellectual functioning can be observed. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 9.
Spearman thought of intelligence as composed ofthe ‘g’ factor and a number of ‘g’ factors. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 10.
Guilford included in his model of intelligence the operation of convergent thinking. (True/False)
True

Question 11.
Guilford’s ‘Plot Title test’ ’ is an example of a test of convergent thinking. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 12.
Little relation has been found between scores obtained on standard I.q. tests and scores achieved on tests of divergent thinking. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 13.
The ability to think abstractly was according to Tennant the essential ingredient of intellectual effectiveness. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 14.
Charlesworth was an opinion that intelligence consists of specific cognitive abilities that enable an individual to adapt to the environment. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 15.
Intelligence changes with age. (True/False)
Answer:
True

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Objective Questions

Question 16.
Intellectual growth continues throughout the lifespan. (True /False)
Answer:
False

Question 17.
Most infant intelligence tests are constructed to assess sensory-motor skills. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 18.
The most important infant intelligence test was developed by Spearman. (True / False)
False

Question 19.
The most important infant intelligence test was developed by Gessel. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 20.
The infant intelligence test developed by Arnold Gessel is known as Developmental schedules. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 21.
Gessel’s developmental schedules contain items that show a clear age progression. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 22.
Gessel’s test measures not intelligence but the child’s level of development. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 23.
In Gessel’s test, the score obtained by an infant is called the developmental quotient. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 24.
The failure to find a strong relationship between infant DQs and their subsequent I.Qs suggests that two scores reflect different abilities. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 25.
Verbal reasoning grows with age. (True/False)
Answer:
True

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Objective Questions

Question 26.
Crystalised intelligence increases with age and declines only with the approach of very old age. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 27.
There is no difference between pure intelligence and measured intelligence. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 28.
Thurstone identified nine primary mental abilities. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 29.
Guilford proposed a structure of intellect containing 120 separate items. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 30.
Intelligence develops most rapidly during childhood. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 31.
General intelligence continues to increase until the later adult years. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 32.
The rate of increase in intelligence slows down as the person grows older. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 33.
Usually, boys score higher in standard intelligent tests than girls. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 34.
The scores of boys and girls are marked by similarity in standard intelligent tests. (True /False)
Answer:
True

Question 35.
Some personality traits are associated with the I.Q. (True /False)
Answer:
True

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Objective Questions

Question 36.
Aggression, competition, and self-reliance traits are found to but associated with the increase in I.Qs. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 37.
Social class does not influence the I.Q. of a person. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 38.
Intellectual development is a smooth and continuous process. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 39.
Extreme and prolonged social deprivation produces intellectual impairment. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 40.
Gifted individuals are those whose I.Qs are at the upper end of the distribution of intelligence. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 41.
Creativity has no relationship with giftedness. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 42.
Creative persons have a high tolerance for ambiguity. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 43.
Children’s reasoning and their use of increasingly complex hypotheses in problem-solving tasks indicate a progression through cognitive stages. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 44.
Piaget has emphasized the biological and adaptive significance of intelligence. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 45.
During the preparational state, children begin to use symbols like imagery and language. (True/False)
Answer:
True

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Objective Questions

Question 46.
The sensory-motor stage continues from birth to five years. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 47.
The stage of formal operations is the third stage of Piagetian stages of cognitive development. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 48.
The preparational stage lasts from three to seven years. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 49.
Cross-cultural studies have indicated that the stages Piaget has observed in western children are also found in children of very different societies. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 50.
Intelligence and creativity are highly co-related. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 51.
A maximum level of intelligence is required to be creative. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 52.
Flexibility is essential for creativity. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 53.
Intelligence can be greatly improved by competition. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 54.
The two-factor theory of intelligence was proposed by Stanford. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 55.
Accurate assessment of intelligence is possible, through standardized intelligence tests. (True/False)
Answer:
True

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Objective Questions

Question 56.
Accurate assessment of intelligence is possible, through standardized intelligence tests. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 57.
Edward’s personal preference schedule is a multiple-choice inventory. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 58.
When no language is used in an intelligence test, it is called a verbal test of intelligence. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 59.
A performance test does not use language. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 60.
The Army Alpha test is the first group test of intelligence. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 61.
M.M.P.I. is a test of intelligence. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 62.
The concept of mental age was introduced by Galton. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 63.
The adult intelligence scale of Wechsler deals with non-verbal scales. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 64.
Binet was an American Psychologist. (True/ False)
Answer:
False

Question 65.
Binet and Simon revised the 1905 test scale in the year 1908. (True/ False)
Answer:
True

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Objective Questions

Question 66.
When the M.A. and C.A. are the same the I.Q. is 100. (True/ False)
Answer:
True

Question 67.
Mental ability is calculated from the intelligence test score. (True/ False)
Answer:
True

Question 68.
Mental age is calculated from the chronological age. (True/ False)
Answer:
False

Question 69.
Raymond Cattell’s IPTA test is a culture fair test. (True/ False)
Answer:
True

Question 70.
A culture-fair test is otherwise called a culture-free test. (True/ False)
Answer:
True

Question 71.
The process of classifying all intellectual abilities into a systematic framework has been developed by Stanford. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 72.
Intelligence reaches its peak by the age of 16 to 21 years. (True/ False)
Answer:
True

Question 73.
Ordinarily, intelligence does not grow after 45 years. (True /False)
Answer:
True

Question 74.
Two children of the same age will have the same mental age. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 75.
Two children of the same age will have the same chronological age. (True / False)
Answer:
False

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Objective Questions

Question 76.
The actual age of a person and his chronological age are the same. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 77.
Intelligence quotient and mental age are the same. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 78.
Guilford included in his model the operation of thinking. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 79.
Guilford’s Plot title test is an example of convergent thinking. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 80.
Guilford was of opinion that the ability to think abstractly was the essential ingredient of intellectual effectiveness. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 81.
Charlesworth held that intelligence consists of specific cognitive abilities that enable the individual to adapt to the environment. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 82.
That intelligence changes with age was for the first time made public by Binet. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 83.
Thurstone identified nine specific mental abilities which according to him are the constituents of intelligence. (True/False)
Answer:
False

Question 84.
Intelligence develops most rapidly during adolescence. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 85.
Boys are more intelligent compared to girls. (True / False)
Answer:
False

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Objective Questions

Question 86.
The sensory-motor stage Piaget continues from birth to two years. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 87.
F or Piaget the function of intelligence is the adoption to the world. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 88.
Children’s cognitive system change and grow to become more adaptive and hence provides a more realistic understanding of the world. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 89.
Accommodation is a change of the internal cognitive system to provide a better match to outside information. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 90.
Intelligence quotient and mental age are different concepts. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 91.
I.Q. and Developmental age are different. (True/ False)
Answer:
True

Question 92.
Most infant intelligence tests are meant to measure sensory motor skills. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 93.
Mental age is a measure of the absolute level of intelligence. (True / False)
Answer:
True

Question 94.
Gcssel conducted the most brilliant study to compare the D.Q. of children with their I.Q. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 95.
The very earliest tasks of intelligence were based on the assumption that intelligence has a physiological basis. (True/False)
Answer:
True

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 5 Intelligence Objective Questions

Question 96.
The book experimental study of intelligence was authored by Binet. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 97.
The PASS Model of intelligence was developed by cattle. (True / False)
Answer:
False

Question 98.
The sensory-motor stage continues from birth to two years. (True/False)
Answer:
True

Question 99.
Piaget has chartered major stages of cognitive development three. (True/False)
Answer:
False

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 4 British Economic Policies in India (1757-1857 A.D.) Short Answer Questions

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Solutions Unit 4 British Economic Policies in India (1757-1857 A.D.) Short Answer Questions.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class History Unit 4 British Economic Policies in India (1757-1857 A.D.) Short Answer Questions

Very Short-Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
From the remote past, the Indian villages are seen as which type of unit and which unit was strong in every village?
Answer:
From the remote past, the Indian villages are seen as small republics. The Economic organization was strong in every village.

Question 2.
Regarding village economy which view was given by English Historian Eiphiiie stone?
Answer:
According to the view of Elphine stone “The village clans were more or less capable of using all necessary things within their small Republics”.

Question 3.
What was the Chief necessity of villagers and what was their Chief Occupation?
Answer:
The chief necessity of villagers was food and cloth. Their Chief occupation was cultivation and knitting.

Question 4.
Before the British era crores of people in India were dependent upon which cottage industry?
Answer:
Before the British era crores of people in India were dependent upon the knitting cottage industry.

Question 5.
In the remote past, Muslim and velvet dresses were widely demanded by which country’s eminent people?
Answer:
In the remote past, Muslim and velveteen dresses were widely demanded by the royal, family of Egypt and eminent people of Rome.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 4 British Economic Policies in India (1757-1857 A.D.) Short Answer Questions

Question 6.
When and where flying shuttle and steam Engine was invented?
Answer:
In 1760 Flying shuffles and in 1768 steam Engines were invented in England.

Question 7.
In 1780 which Governor-general has given the calculation that in every year near about how many amount’s gold was supplied to England.
Answer:
In 1780 Governor-general warren Hastings has given calculation that every year about 40 lakh amounts of gold were supplied to England.

Question 8.
Which English personality was aware of the Govt, that the construction of the railway in India would lead to the economic prosperity of Great Britain? At the time which Governor-general railway construction began in India?
Answer:
English personality Sir Row land Macdonald Stephenson was aware of the Govt, that the construction of the railway in India would lead to the economic prosperity of Great Britain. At the time of Governor-general Lord Dalhousie, railway construction began in India.

Question 9.
When the first railway in the world was opened and when the railway construction began in India?
Answer:
The first railway was opened in England in 1825. The railway construction began in India in 1850 A.D.

Question 10.
When was the first railway introduced in India and it connected from which place to which place?
Answer:
the first railway was introduced in India in 1853 A.D. It was the first railway track in Asia. It was connected from Bombay to Thane.

Question 11.
Which scientist Engineer took charge of the telegraph in India and by which A.D. the experimental telegraph lines were established?
Answer:
The scientist Engineer O’Shaughnessy took charge of the telegraph of India. By 1852 the experimental telegraph lines were established.

Question 12.
By which A.D. which gifted man of England introduced penny postage?
Answer:
By 1840 A.D. a gifted man named Rowland Hill introduced in England the system of penny postage.

Question 13.
On which A.D. India got permission to introduce the postal system at which cost?
Answer:
In 1852 A.D. India got permission to introduce the postal system at the cost of half-anna.

Question 14.
When Cornwallis introduced permanent settlement in India and which English administrator helped him?
Answer:
In 1793 A.D. Cornwallis introduced permanent settlement in India. In this work, the English administrator Sir John Shore helped him.

Question 15.
Which A.D. personnel introduced the Rayatwari system in the Baramahal district on an experimental basis?
Answer:
In 1792 A.D. English personnel Thomas Munro and captain Reed introduced the Rayatwari system at the Baramahal district on an experimental basis.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 4 British Economic Policies in India (1757-1857 A.D.) Short Answer Questions

Question 16.
At the time of which Governor general and in which A.D. Mahalwari System was introduced in India?
Answer:
At the time of Governor-general William Bentick in 1833 A.D., the Mahalwari system was introduced in India.

Question 17.
What was defined regarding the “Drain of wealth” by Dadabhal Naroji?
Answer:
The drain of wealth means a part of India’s national wealth was being exported to England for which India got no adequate economic or material returns.

Question 18.
Regarding the sanyasi revolt which the famous novelist elaborately described and what was the name of his book?
Answer:
Regarding the sanyasi revolt, the famous novelist Bankim Chandra Chatterjee has elaborately described in his novel. The name of his book is “Anand Math’’.

Question 19.
When paik Revolt was constituted and who was the chief architect of this revolt?
Answer:
The paik Revolt was constituted in 1817. The Chief Architect of this revolt was Buxi Jagabandhu.

Question 20.
Who was the king of Khurda at the time of the Khuda revolt and when the British captured khurda and took administration?
Answer:
Mukunda Dev II was the king of Khurda at the time of the Khurda Revolt. The British captured khurda and took administration in 1805 A.D.

Question 21.
Who was the magistrate of Cuttack at the time of the Khurda Revolt and after the Revolt who inquired regarding it?
Answer:
Impe was the magistrate of Cuttack at the time of the Khurda Revolt. After the Revolt magistrate water inquired about the cause of the Revolt.

Question 22.
When death occurred to Mukunda Dev II and after his death which son of him got permission from the English to settle at puri palace?
Answer:
In 1817 A.D. Mukunda Deva II was dead. After his death his son, Rama Chandra Dev II got permission from the English to settle in Puir Palace.

Question 23.
The zamindar or Land Lords of Bengal levied more taxes on the Santhals according to which policy and in which portion of the product they had to give as taxes?
Answer:
The zamindar on landlords of Bengal levied more taxes on the Santhalas according to the policy of permanent settlement. They had to give two third of the product as tax.

Question 24.
Who was the leader of the Santhal Revolt what belonged to which ‘village and what was the name of their revolting force?
Answer:
The leader of the Santhal Revolt was siddhu Murmu belonged to the village of Bhagradiha, He constituted a new “Guerilla Force”.

Question 25.
After how many years of the Plassey war which eminent revolt has broken in 1857 AD.
Answer:
After exactly on 100 years after the Plassey war, eminent revolt simply muting was broke in 1857 A.D.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 4 British Economic Policies in India (1757-1857 A.D.) Short Answer Questions

Question 26.
After an eventful reign when Governor-general Dalhousie left India and in nis place who came?
Answer:
After an eventful reign, Governor-general Dalhouse left India on 1856 A.D. In his place, Lord canning came as Governor-general.

Question 27.
Which policy of Dalhousie created terror among the homely kings and which sons of the kings lost their kingdom?
Answer:
The policy “Doctrine of Lapse” created terror among homely kings. The adopted sons of kings lost their kingdoms.

Question 28.
Previously when Hindus were initiated to Christianity, they were debarred of getting hereditary health but in which Governor-general’s time it was reformed by law?
Answer:
Previously when Hindus were initiated to Christianity, they were debarred of getting hereditary wealth but at the time of Governor-general Dalhousie, it was preferred by law.

Question 29.
By the prevailing of which rifle revolt spanking emancipated within the sepoys and which numour continued against this?
Answer:
By the prevailing of Enfield rifle revolt spanking emancipated the sepoys. A rumor continued that in that rifle cow and pig fats assembled.

Question 30.
Where the first symptom of revolt was marked by sepoys early in 1857 and on which date did the open revolt of the sepoys force breaks out at Meerut?
Answer:
The first symptom of the revolt was marked at Barrackpore in Bengal early in 1857. On 10th May 1857, the open revolt of the sepoy force broke out at Meerut.

Question 31.
The rebels quickly captured which palace at Delhi and they proclaimed whom as the Emperor in India?
Answer:
The rebels quickly captured the Mughal palace at Delhi. They proclaimed the old Bahadur Saha II of the Mughal dynasty as the Emperor of India.

Question 32.
In sepoy muting which Rajput warrior directed the course of revolt in Bihar and which warrior gave direction his forces from Kanpur?
Answer:
In sepoy muting, the Rajput warrior Kunwar Singh directed the course of revolt in Bihar. Nana Saheb gave direction to his force from Kanpur.

Question 33.
The sepoys and the revolted people declared who as their Peshawar and followed his leadership how many English soldiers at Kanpur fought for somedays & lastly surrendered?
Answer:
The sepoys and the revolted people declared Natta Sahid as their Peshawar and followed his leadership. There were 400 English soldiers at Kanpur who fought for some days and lastly surrendered.

Question 34.
Which famous Maratha Brahmin where took the leadership of twenty thousand noble sepoys?
Answer:
The famous Maratha Brahmin Tantia Tope at liwalior took the leadership of twenty thousand rebel sepoys.

Question 35.
For which cause Rani Laxmi Bai became the agitator in sepoy mating?
Answer:
After the death of the husband of Rani Laxmi Bai, no permission was given to enthrone her adopted son of her. To agitate this Rani Laxmi Bai entangled herself in mutiny.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 4 British Economic Policies in India (1757-1857 A.D.) Short Answer Questions

Question 36.
Which British General resisted Tantia Tope and was defeated and at last the forces of Tantia Tope joined with which forces?
Answer:
British General Windham resisted Tantia Tope and was defeated. At last, the forces of Tantia Tope joined with the forces of Rani Laxmi Bai.

Question 37.
At the time of the fall of Delhi which able administrators were in charge of Punjab and Bombay’s presidency and made their areas calm and quiet?
Answer:
At the time of the fall of Delhi the able administrator of Punjab was John Lawrence and in Bombay’s presidency was lord Elphinstone. They were capable to make their area calm and quiet.

Question 38.
Which India nucers helped the British in the Revolt of 1857?
Answer:
The Indian leaders who helped the British in the Revolt of 1857 were the Nizam of Hyderabad, the Begum of Bhopal, the kind of Nepal, and the Maratha leader Sindhia.

Question 39.
Which English General proceeded from Punjab to Delhi and blew up which famous Gate of Delhi?
Answer:
The English General Nicholson, a brave soldier proceeded from Punjab to Delhi and blew up the famous Kashmir Gate of Delhi.

Question 40.
Lastly, the English took which Emperor as a prisoner, and his two sons and a grandson were shot dead by which English General?
Answer:
Lastly, the English took Emperor Bahadur Shah II as a prisoner. His two sons and a graton were shot dead by English General Hudson.

Question 41.
The furious wars of which two rebels worried the British Generals greatly.
Answer:
The furious wars of two rebels i.e. Rani Laxmi Bai and Tantia Tope worried the British Generals Greatly.

Question 42.
When and in which battlefield did Rani Laxmi Bai become dead?
Answer:
In 17th June 1858 in the battlefield of Kalapitha at the time of war became dead.

Question 43.
In sepoy mutiny which warrior after some defeats was caught and hanged and what happened to Nana Saheb?
Answer:
In sepoy mutiny, the warrior Tantia Tope after some defeats was caught and hanged. Nana Saheb was defeated and fled away dense forests of Nepal and erased death.

Question 44.
At Orissa in which region the revolt continued for the next four years and which warrior took the leadership of this movement?
Answer:
At Orissa in the Sambalpur region, the revolt continued for the next four years. In this movement warrior, Bira Surendra Sai took the leadership.

Question 45.
In the furious condition of the revolt who was the only Englishman who showed some kindness towards the people and for this in which name he was famous?
Answer:
In the various condition of the revolt, Governor-general Lord Canning was the only Englishman who showed some kindness towards the people. For this, he was famous for “Benign canning”.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 4 British Economic Policies in India (1757-1857 A.D.) Short Answer Questions

Question 46.
After the 1857 Revolt, the Indian administration withdrew from whom and entrusted upon with authority?
Answer:
After the 1857 Revolt, the Indian administration withdrew from the East India Company. The administration was entrusted to the British crown.

Question 47.
After the 1857 revolt, the representative of the British monarch got which designation and who was the first representative in India?
Answer:
After the 1857 revolt, the representative of the British monarch got designation as a “viceroy”. Lord Canning was the first viceroy in India.

Question 48.
At where viceroy Lord Canning when arranged the grand Durbar and read out the proclamation?
Answer:
At Allahabad viceroy Lord canning on 1st November. 1858 arranged the grand Durbar and read out the proclamation.

Question 49.
When and where Mohan Das Karamchand Gandhi was born?
Answer:
Mohan das Karam Chand Gandhi was bom on 2nd October 1869 at Porbandar of Gujurat.

Question 50.
What was the name of the father of Mohandas and at where he secured the post of Dewan?
Answer:
Karamchand Gandhi was the name of the father of Mohandas. He sourced the post of Dewan at Porbandar.

Question 51.
Which author’s English translation of Geeta had a deep impact upon the mind of Mohandas and which great man’s life and message created a deep impression upon him?
Answer:
English author Edwin Arnold’s English translation of Geeta had a deep impact on the mind of Mohandas. Great men like Gautama Buddha’s life and Jesus Christ’s message created deep impressions upon his mind.

Question 52.
By whose request Gandhi went to South Africa and when he proceeded to South Africa?
Answer:
By a Muslim gentleman’s request, Gandhi went to South Africa. He proceeded to South Africa in 1853.

Question 53.
Where their public address of Gandhiji was the first in his life?
Answer:
The public address of Gandhiji at Pretoria in South Africa was the first in his life.

Question 54.
At South Africa, the English Government oppressed the Indians in which A.O. which law was declared?
Answer:
At South Africa the English Government oppressed the Indians in 1906 A.D. “Black Law” was declared.

Question 55.
At first which Indian enforced which title to Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi?
Answer:
At first Rabindra Nath Tagore enforced the title of “Mahatma” to Mohandas Karam Chand Gandhi.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 4 British Economic Policies in India (1757-1857 A.D.) Short Answer Questions

Question 56.
The English Government appointed a committee under which justice and when?
Answer:
The English Government appointed a committee under justice Rowlatt on 1919 A.D.

Question 57.
Where and when the Jalliana-walating Massacre occurred?
Answer:
In the city of Amritsar of Punjab, Jallianawalabag Massacre occurred on the Hindu New years day i.e. 13th April 1919.

Question 58.
When Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms was declared and it came in which shape?
Answer:
On 1919 Montague Chelmsford Reforms was declared and it came in the shape of the Government of India Act 1919.

Question 59.
When by the inspiration of Mahatma Gandhi which movement declared?
Answer:
On September 1920 the inspiration of Mahatma Gandhi “Non-Co-operation, Movement”, was declared.

Question 60.
For which cause did the Indian – Muslims wage a Revolt against the British and this Revolt was famous as which Revolt?
Answer:
After the first world war, the victorious British Government prepared to punish Turkey’s Sultan. For this cause, the Indian Muslims wages a Revolt against the British and this Revolt was famous as the “Khilafat Movement”.

Question 61.
When and where at the session of congress the decision of the country vide non-cooperation movement was accepted? On that eventful session how many Odisha representatives joined?
Answer:
On 1920 last week of December at the Nagpur session of congress, the decision of the country-wide Non-cooperation movement was accepted. In that eventful session, 35 Odisha representatives joined.

Question 62.
In which session of congress “Utkal state congress committee” was formulated and who was the first president of this committee?
Answer:
In the Nagpur session of congress “Utkal state congress committee” was formulated. Gopabandhu Das was the first president of this committee.

Question 63.
When Mahatma Gandhi came to Odisha and what was the reason behind his coming to Odisha?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi came to Odisha in the last week of Mach 1921. One week staying at Odisha he urged his anticipation to all people of Odisha to involve in the Non-cooperation movement.

Question 64.
On which year Simon Commission entered in India and all over India which shout accelerated?
Answer:
In the year 1928 A.D. Simon commission entered in India. All over India the shouts “Simon, go back” accelerated.

Question 65.
On 1929 December 29 where an important session of congress was arranged and in that session who was the president?
Answer:
On 1929 December 29 at Lahore in Punjab, an important session of congress was arranged. In that historic session, Jawaharlal Nehru was the president.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 4 British Economic Policies in India (1757-1857 A.D.) Short Answer Questions

Question 66.
At the last date of the Lahore session i.e. on 31st December 1929 who waged on an important proposal regarding which?
Answer:
At last date of the Lahore session i.e. on 31st December 1929, Mahatma Gandhi waged an important proposal of “ Pooma Swaraj” or complete independence.

Question 67.
At the beginning of the New year i.e. on 1930 A.D. January 26 was declared as which day? Who raised the National Flag?
Answer:
At the beginning of the New year i.e. on 1930 A.D. January 26 was declared as “Pooma Swaraj” on Independence Day. Congress president Jawaharlal Nehru raised the National Flag.

Question 68.
After how many years of the Non-cooperation movement which new movement began under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi?
Answer:
After 10 years of Non- cooperation movement civil disobedience movement began under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.

Question 69.
On which year and on which date a long foot journey was held from Sabarmati Ashram to beach Dandi? What was the name of that historic journey?
Answer:
On 1930, March 12 a long foot journey was held from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi. The name of that historic journey was “Dandi March”.

Question 70.
At which sea coast place of Baleswar District of Odisha the agitators broke civil law under whose leadership?
Answer:
At the sea coast place of Inchudi of Baleswar District of Odisha, the agitators broke civil law under Acharya Harihar Das’s leadership.

Question 71.
On which year the only representative of congress joined in the second Round Table conference?
Answer:
On 1931 the only representative of congress Mahatma Gandhi joined in the second Round Table Conference at London.

Question 72.
By disappointment, Mahatma Gandhi returned from London. On his way to India he met which French thinker and author and great dictator of Italy?
Answer:
By disappointment, Mahatma Gandhi returned from London. On his way to India, he met Roma Rolla, the famous French thinker, author, and great dictator of Italy Benito Mussolini.

Question 73.
After a judicial discussion in between Gandhi and Ambedkar which pact was signed? This pact was famous as which pact?
Answer:
After a judicial discussion in between Gandhiji and Ambedkar on 1932 September 24, a pact was signed. This pact was famous as the “Poona Pact”.

Question 74.
During the last part of 1932 at England once again a Round Table conference was held and that was which Round Table? In this conference a law was signed and what was that?
Answer:
During the last part of 1932 in England once again a Round Table Conference was held and that was Third Round Table Conference. In this conference, a law was signed as the 1935 India Administration Act.

Question 75.
Where and when at the Muslim league conference did Mohammad Ali Jinnah wage the proposal of Pakistan country?
Answer:
At Lahore in the Muslim League conference on 1940, Mohammad Ah Jinnah wages the proposal of Pakistan country.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 4 British Economic Policies in India (1757-1857 A.D.) Short Answer Questions

Question 76.
After the acceptance of Mount Batten’s plan when the British Parliament recommended that plan and what was the name of that planning Law?
Answer:
After the acceptance of Mount Batten’s plan in 1947 July, the British Parliament recommended that plan. That plan came to be regarded as the “1947 Indian Independence Law”.

Question 77.
Regarding British sovereignty and the willingness of princely states what was written in “1947 India Independence Law”?
Answer:
In the “1947 India Independence Law” it was written that for all times to come England last its sovereignty of India. Regarding the princely state, it was noted that if. they want they can assemble with either to India or Pakistan or remain independent.

Question 78.
For the solution of princely state problems which leader’s bold step worked accurately? He was renowned as which name?
Answer:
For the solution of the princely state’s problems, Sardar Ballavbhai Patel’s bold steps worked accurately. He was renowned as the “Iron man of India”.

Question 79.
On August 7 Mohammad Ali Jinnah flew form Delhi to which place and he was coronated to which post?
Answer:
On August 7 Mohammad Ali Jinnah flew from Delhi to Lahore. After seven days he was coronated to Governor general of Pakistan.

Question 80.
Before independence, Mahatma Gandhi declared to whom as his political successor. After independence who got the portfolio of Prime Minister in the largest democracy of the world?
Answer:
Before independence, Mahatma Gandhi declared Jawaharlal Nehru as his political successor. After independence Jawaharlal Nehru got the portfolio of Prime Minister in the largest democracy of the world.

Question 81.
Which time is regarded as the “Gandhi Era” and in which important revolts was he involved?
Answer:
The time from 1920 A.D. to 1947 A.D. is regarded as the “ Gandhi Era”. By his leadership important revolts like the non-cooperation movement, Civil Disobedience Movement and Quit India Movement was organized.

Short-Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
The precondition of permanent settlement in India.
Answer:
Clive, the founder of the British Empire, could not give to Bengal a good land system. The revenue was collected from peasants through oppressive agents. Warren Hastings tried his best to bring a better system. He established a Board of Revenue. He appointed European District collectors to remain in charge of revenue collection.

But still, the difficulties continued. The real problem of the Government was how to go to the countless villages and get land revenue from millions of peasants according to the size and nature of their lands. It was impossible for the European District collector, who was only one for each district to do that work through his subordinate officers.

Question 2.
Sir Johan shore and active participation in introducing permanent settlement.
Answer:
In this work, the Governor General was helped by an able administrator of that time, John Shore. He justified the need for a permanent class of landlords or zamindars for the security of government with respect to its revenues and the security and protection of its subjects. In Bengal before the British conquest, there were old zamindar families who enjoyed hereditary rights on lands for a long.

But after the country was conquered by the English those zamindars disappeared. Their lands were taken over by the Government and the Government collected revenues by various methods as already discussed. Cornwallis and Shore wanted to receive that class and give them the responsibility of revenue collection. So at last Cornwallis issued a proclamation in 1793, introducing the permanent settlement.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 4 British Economic Policies in India (1757-1857 A.D.) Short Answer Questions

Question 3.
An important episode in Sanyasi Rebellion.
Answer:
The sannyasi and Fakir Rebellion is an important episode in the early colonial rule in Bengal, The rebellion started in 1750 onwards but took a violent turn in 1773 when warren Hastings assumed the Governor Generalship of Bengal. The Movement covered a wide range of Bengal and Bihar and continued for a long time. There is also a distorted reflection of rebellion in Bankim Chandra’s Anandamath for which Bankim Chandra has been accused.

The present article implores how the sannyasi is and Fakirs launched their campaign in an anti-colonial attitude against the British Raj and their trusted zamindars. It was only possible due to their wide range of activities and networks. The religious pilgrimage was no doubt a factor in combining the sanyasis and Fakirs to launch a spontaneous movement for a long time.

Question 4.
Involvement of Bihar region in Sanyasi Rebellion.
Answer:
Bihar was situated in such a geographical location that it was not difficult for the Fakirs and sannyasis to establish close links with Morung and the territories adjoining Nepal. This explains why the Fakirs and Sannyasis were chased, in northern or eastern Bengal by the company’s forces, they took shelter in Bihar and from there they escaped either to northern India or to Nepal.

From their centers in Northern India like Allahabad, Benaras, and Mirzapur, their routes to their principal spoliation in Bengal ran through Bihar, and herein lies the importance of Bihar in the history of Fakir and Sannyasi uprising. Besides they had to fortify their subsidiary centers in various parts of Bihar and maintained active contacts with Nepal for purpose of trade and religious pilgrimage.

Question 5.
Introduction of paik movement.
Answer:
The paiks were the traditional landed militia of Odisha. They served as warriors and were charged with policing functions during peacetime. The paiks were organized into three ranks distinguished by their occupation and the weapons they wielded. These were the Paharis the bearers of shields and the khanda (sword), the Banuas who led distant expeditions and used matchlocks, and the Dhenkiy as archers who also performed different duties in Odisha armies.

The conquest of Odisha by the East India Company in 1803 and the dethronement of the Raja of Khurda began the fall of the power and prestige of the paikas. The attitude of the company to the paiks was expressed by Walter Ewer on the commission that looked into the causes of the Rebellion, thus.

Now there is no need for the assistance of paiks at Khurda. It is dangerous to keep them in the British armed forces. Thus they should be treated and dealt with as common Ryots and land revenue and other taxes should be collected from them. They must be deprived of their formed Jagir lands (rent-free land given to the paiks for their military service to the state).

Within a short period of time, the name of paik has already been forgotten. But still now where the paiks are living they have retained their previous aggressive nature. But still now where the paiks are living they have retained their previous aggressive nature. In order to break their poisonous teeth the British police must be highly alert to keep the paiks under their control for a pretty long period, unless the paik community is rained completely the British rule cannot run smoothly.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 4 British Economic Policies in India (1757-1857 A.D.) Short Answer Questions

Question 6.
Cause of paik Rebellion.
Answer:
The paik rebellion had several social, economic, and political reasons. The paiks were alienated by the British regime who took over the hereditary rent-free lands granted to them after the conquest of Khurda. They were also subjected to extortion and oppression at the hands of the company government and its servant.

Had conciliatory measures been adopted towards the paiks from the beginning, it is possible that they would have become a source of strength to the company rule in Odisha. The extortionist land revenue policy of the company affected the peasants and the zamindars alike. A source of much consternation for the common people was the rise in price of salt due to taxes imposed on it by the new government.

The company also abolished the system of courier currency that had existed in Odisha prior to its conquest and required that taxes be paid in silver. This caused much popular hardship and discontent. In 1804 the Raja of Khurda planned a rebellion against the British in alliance with the paiks. But the plot was soon discovered and the Raja’s territory was confiscated.

Question 7.
Leader and participants in paik rebellion.
Answer:
The paiks were led by Bakshi Jagabandhu Bidyadhar Mohapatra, Bhramarabar Ray the formed Bakshi or commander of the forces of the Raja of Khurda. Jagabandhu’s familiar estate of killa Rorang was taken over by the British in 1814, reducing him to penury. When the Rebellion broke in March 1817, paiks came together under his leadership.

Raja Mukunda Deva, the last king of Khurda was another leader of the Indian rebels. The rebellion enjoyed widespread support in Oriya Society with feudal Chiefs, Zamindars, and the common people of Odisha participating in it. The Zamindars of Haripur, Mrichpur Golra, Balarampur, Budnakera, and Rupsa Supported the paiks – while the revolt started from Banapur and Khurda.

It quickly spread to other parts of Odisha such as Puri, Pipili, and Cuttack and to several remote villages, including Kanika, Kujang, and Pattamundai. The Rajas of Kanika, Kujang, Nayagarh, and Ghumusur aided Jagabandhu and Dalabehera Mirhaidar Ali of Jadupur was an important Muslim rebel.

Question 8.
The effects of Paik Rebellion.
Answer:
In May 1817, the British Posted Judges to Khurda to sentence the captured rebels. The rebels were awarded sentences of death, transportation, and long-time imprisonment. Between 1818 and 1826, the company’s forces undertook combing operations in the jungles of Khurda to capture and put to death rebels who had managed to escape.

In these operations, numerous paiks were killed. Their leader Jagabandhu surrendered to the British in 1825 and lived as their prisoner in Cuttack until 1829 when he died. On capturing Puri, Jagabandhu offered to rain state Raja Mukunda Deva. Whom the British had dethroned in 1804 and exiled to Puri as the Raja of Khurda.

Although the turned down the other and asked for British assistance, he was arrested when the British retook the town and was imprisoned at Cuttack. The Raja died a British prisoner in November 1817. The East India Company also appointed a commissioner of Cuttack Robert Ker to ensure. Such a rebellion would not repeat itself.

These attempts remained half-hearted at best, the British viewing Odisha largely as a convent land link between their presidencies of Madras and Bengal. Odisha continued to be wracked by localized insurgencies including at Tapanga in 1827 and the Banapur Rebellion of 1835. The revenue policies of the company in Odisha, which was a major cause of hardship to the people, remained unchanged.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 4 British Economic Policies in India (1757-1857 A.D.) Short Answer Questions

Question 9.
The background of the Santhal Rebellion.
Answer:
The uprising of the Santhals began as a tribal reaction to and despotic British revenue system, usury practices, and the Zamindari system in India, in the tribal best of what was then known as the Bengal presidency. It was a revolt against the oppression of the colonial ruse propagated through a distorted revenue system, enforced by the local Zamindars, the police, and the courts of the legal system set up by the British.

Before the British advent in India, residing in the hilly districts of Manbhum, Barahum, Chhotanagpur, Palamu, and Birbhum. They lived an agrarian lifestyle by clearing forest patches, cultivating, and hunting for subsistence. But as the agents of the new colonial rule. Claimed their rights on the lands, the Santhal retreated to the hills of Rajmahal. After a brief period, the British operatives with their native undersigns i.e. the local landlords lay claim on this new land as well.

Zamindars and the money lenders all used them for goods lent to them on loans, through corrupt practices of the money lenders, the loan grew to prohibitive proportions, for repaying which entire families had to work as bonded laborers. This dispossession turned the Santhals into nebess and finally, they took on oath to launch an attack on the ruling authority i.e. the British.

Question 10.
Mangal Pandey and Nana Sahib.
Answer:
He was spray served under the English East India Company. He provided the immediate spark to the revolt of 1857. He shut at the chief of the 34th regiment at Barrackpore. Nana Saheb was a rebel in the revolt of 1857. He was the adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II. He remained in charge of the Kanpur center during the Revolt of 1857.

Question 11.
Reason for modern means of communication.
Answer:
In order to facilitate the shipment of raw material at a low cost facilitate the shipment of raw materials at a low cost, the British constructed roads, and railways so that goods could be sent to ports quickly. In order to promote their own commercial interest in India.

Question 12.
Ryotwari and Mahalwari system.
Answer:
It was a land revenue system introduced by the British in the Madres region. Under this, the govt made settlements directly with the ryots or cultivators to pay the revenue for a period of 30 years. It was a land revenue system. In the northern part of India, the British introduced the malware system. The settlement was made between the govt and the mahals or groups of villages.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 4 British Economic Policies in India (1757-1857 A.D.) Short Answer Questions

Question 13.
Laxman Naik.
Answer:
Laxman Naik was a hero of the Quit India movement in Odisha. He was the leader of the tribal groups of Koraput. The tribal people under the leadership of Laxman Naik defied the Govt, most heroically while the course of the revolution of 1942 was in full swing in other places of Odisha.

Question 14.
Non-cooperation Movement in Odisha.
Answer:
Utkal Pradesh congress committee was formed and Gopabandhu Das became its president. The Utkal Pradesh Congress committee prepared grounds in Odisha for the Non-Cooperation movement.

Question 15.
The immediate cause of the Revolt of 1857.
Answer:
An immediate cause was provided by the introduction of cartridges that had greased paper covers. At that time a new rifle called the Enfield rifle was supplied to the soldiers. The cartridges to be used in die rifles were greased with fat. Before fitting in the cartridges in the refile, the soldiers had to bite off their ends with their teeth. A rumor spread that the cartridges were greased with the fat of cows and pigs.

The soldiers easily believed that it had been intentionally done by the British to defile their religions. It is clear that it was taboo for a Hindu Soldier to bite the Fat of a cow and for a Muslim soldier to bite the fat of a pig. Both refused to use these cartridges. When force was used against them they were further angered by the British.

Question 16.
Queen Victoria’s proclamation.
Answer:
Queen victoria’s proclamation was made by lord canning in a grand Durbar at Allahabad on 1st November 1858. According to it. The decision was taken to end the company’s rule in India. Henceforth the Indian territories would not be annexed to the British crown. The Indian princes were given the right to adopt sons and successors.

The people of India would be eligible for all Public offices. People were guaranteed full religious freedom. Henceforth; the GoVt. would not interfere in their religious beliefs and practices. The last not the least, the proclamation promised that the Govt, of India, would do its best to benefit and benevolence of the Indians.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 4 British Economic Policies in India (1757-1857 A.D.) Short Answer Questions

Question 17.
Development of communication.
Answer:
The British built a network of roads and railways in order to promote their own commercial interest in India. The vast network of roads and railways and postal system helped the British to maintain rigid administrative control over India. The first railway line ran between Bombay and Thane. Lord Dalhousie promoted this system, which benefited the British administration and business.

On the contrary, people living in faraway places could travel freely and mix with one another. Regional feelings began to disappear and people felt for the first time that they belonged to one country. Thus, it made it possible to mobilize public opinion on a national scale, Indeed it was a factor in the rise of Nationalism in India.

Question 18.
Drain of wealth.
Answer:
Drain of wealth means a part of India’s national wealth was being exported to England for which India got no adequate economic or material returns. It was the root cause of poverty in India. Dada Bhai Naoroji the grand old man of India, was the first person who propounded this theory. The Indian wealth was siphoned of to the British municipality drain. The moderate leaders drew the attention of the mass.

They emphasized that the drain was not only the loss of wealth but also the loss of capital. The drain caused a loss of employment and income. It was responsible for the slow growth of modern industry in India. The drain of wealth also affected the peasants directly. The high rate of land revenue was due to the drain. Thus, this drain theory created awareness among the common people later on.

Question 19.
Jalianawalla Bagh Massacre.
Answer:
On 13 th April 1919 people organized a peaceful general meeting in a small garden in Amritsar, Punjab against the proclamation issued by General Dyer which, forbade public meetings and processions. People were not adequately informed of this proclamation. The meeting place was an enclosed plot of ground known as JalianawaflaBagh.

General O Dyer came with troops blocking the only exit of the compound and ordered his troops 40 open fire on the crowd without warning. A large number of people were killed and wounded in cold blood. This mass killing is known as the Jalianawalla Bagh massacre in history.

Question 20.
Khilafat Movement.
Answer:
The policy of non-violent, noncooperation was used in India for the first time is the Khilafat movement. Turkey had fought against the British in the First World War. At the end of the war, Turkey was defeated. The British divided the Turkish empire and abolished the epithet ‘khalifa’ who was regarded as the spiritual head of the Muslim world. Asa an impact of it Turkey started a movement against the British.

To support the people of Turkistan, Gandhiji started Khilafat Movement in India. Undoubtedly the khilafat movement launched by Gandhiji strengthened national feeling, fostered sentiments of Hindu – Muslim unity, and led afresh to political awakening. Thus, this movement prepared the ground for Non-Cooperation Movement in India in 1921.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 History Unit 4 British Economic Policies in India (1757-1857 A.D.) Short Answer Questions

Question 21.
Chouri Chaura incident.
Answer:
While Noncooperation Movement was going on violence broke out at Chori Chaura – a village near Gorakhpur district of Uttar Pradesh in the year 1922 in the month of February, where evident mob stormed and burnt a police station and killed twenty-two policemen Gandhiji was the opposite of violence. He was, therefore, visibly moved and very disappointed. He realized that the country was not yet ripe for a non-violent struggle. Suddenly, he announced the suspension of the Movement.

Question 22.
Utkal Pradesh congress committee.
Answer:
The Utkal Pradesh congress committee prepared grounds in Odisha for the Non-Cooperation Movement Gopabandhu Das was its president. The committee served twin purposes. First to make a grand success of the Non-Cooperation Movement and second for the linguistic unity of the Oriya people.

It directed the people to total Non-Cooperation with the Government, Hundred Oriyas enrolled in to the committee as volunteers to become congress workers. Most parts of Odisha came under the spell of the Gandhian Struggle due to the effects of the Utkal Pradesh Congress committee.

Question 23.
Dandi March.
Answer:
The civil Disobedience Movement began with the Dandi march of Mahatma Gandhi. He began his historic movement.

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CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 4 Process of Thinking Long Answer Questions Part-2

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Solutions Unit 4 Process of Thinking Long Answer Questions Part 2.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class Psychology Unit 4 Process of Thinking Long Answer Questions Part-2

Long Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Define meaning, the definition of motivation, and the goals of motivation.
Answer:
All these motivational terms regulate the behavior of a person. When we say one is motivated, we mean to say that he is driven or moved to an act by an inner control urge or force as in the case of the writer just discussed. In any action, except a simple reflex, the ‘O’ is guided by certain underlying internal conditions.

They direct the ‘O’ toward specific goals. In the opinion of Bunch (1958) a drive or a motive is a “persistent behavior which appears to be dominated by the time being by a relatively limited group of stimuli acting on the organism.” Motivation is derived from the Latin word “Movere” which means to move.

In the literal sense, it is a process that arouses the energy or drives in the individual to proceed in an activity. The activity aroused, fulfills the need, and reduces the drive or tension. Until it has not fulfilled the need, the drive is not reduced. P.T. Young has defined motivation as the process of arousing an action, sustaining the activity in progress, and regulating the pattern of activity.

Let us take the case of hunger which is a common biological motive. When one is hungry, the need is food. This need creates internal physiological changes in the ‘ O’ which induces a drive. This drive goal or directs the ‘O’ to search for food: When the food is available, the hunger needs is fulfilled and the drive is reduced and the activity ceases then and there.

A motivated act is completed When the goal is reached. Take the case of Thomdike’s eats. Only when the cat is hungry or has the need to escape out ofthe problem box, it tries to open the door. Otherwise, the cat may simply sleep inside the problem box very peacefully. Lashley (1938). He indicated that motivated behavior does not consist simply of chains of stimulus-response sequences.

Conditions within ‘O’ change his response to a particular stimulus at a particular moment. That is why the same person may show different types of responses to the same stimulus on different occasions. Motivation also varies from person to person. Freud, Young, Woodworth, and McDougall, all are of opinion that every action has an underlying cause behind it.

Every learning goal-oriented. Motivation is the superhighway to learning. So Thompson remarked, “All our behaviors are controlled from within the organism by primary motives and the secondary motives are determined by external stimuli.” McDougall and Freud both treated motivation in terms of energy, a conception That has persisted in the psychology of motivation down to the present time.

Freud stated that this energy is derived from a general reservoir of sexual motivation, the libido which is further supplied to all other behavior. McDougall said that all motives are purposive and directed towards a goal. “He led the foundation stone to the idea of motivational energy, the varieties of its expression, and the physiological mechanisms through which it operates.” (Kimbel and Germany 1980).

According to Atkinson (1958), the term motivation refers to the arousal ofthe tendency to act to produce one or more effects. Murphy considered motivation as the general name for the fact that an organism’s act is partly determined by its own nature and internal structure. N.R.F. Maier says that motivation is the process by which the expression of behavior is determined or future expression is influenced by consequences to which such behavior leads.

According to Guilford (1960), all the internal conditions that stir up activity and sustain activity come under motivation. Internal stimulation for motivation is essential while external stimulus may be of secondary importance. Like, if you are hungry, you will definitely search for food. Otherwise, food in the external environment will not motivate you.

Underwood (1968) gives the following operational definition of motivation. The classes of operations used to produce and measure changes in performance and changes in energy output. Maslow held that motivated behavior is need-related and need-based. I Ic also talked about the hierarchy of motives.

Maier defined motivation as a goal-directed activity. Young tried to define motive in a wider sense. He believed that “motivation is the process of arousing the action, sustaining the activity in progress, and regulating the pattern of activity”. New Comb has defined motive as “a state of the ‘O’ in which bodily energy is mobilized and selectively directed towards parts of the environment”.

According to Morgan and King (1975), “Motivation refers to states within a person or animal that drives behavior towards some goal”.
Thus, in the process of motivation, the following stages have involved

  • a state that drives behavior or drives
  • arousal of behavior by this physiological state, and
  • the direction of the behavior toward a specific or selective goal is found. This definition more or less deals with the aspects of the motivational process.

Drive:
Drive is a psychological state, a tateWhjph leads one to activity. This State of the body leads the ‘O’ to a certain specific and selective activity that produces tension. When one is thirsty, if he is given food instead of water, it may not reduce his driving state. His activity is specifically directed towards getting a glass of water for the reduction of thirst drive. Drive is pure energy that is mobilized and made available for activity. Drive is further a consequence of unsatisfied needs. Only art unsatisfied need generates a drive.

Goal Or Incentive:
According to Ruch (1970), “A goal refers to some substance, objects or environmental initiated action. “Skinner and Bugelski have shown symbolic incentives in rats temporarily eliminating the complexity of internal conditions which initiated action, “Briefly, a goal is a reward, an incentive, or a motivation towards which behavior is directed.

The term incentive refers demotivational value of reinforcer. Without an incentive or reinforcer, motivation cannot be fulfilled, the incentive may be positive or negative, like food and electric shock or reward and punishment. It may be material, semi-material or non-material. It may also be verbal, non-verbal, biological, or social.

The incentive may be symbolic also when it does not have direct reinforcing power. Token experiments by Wulfe (1936) and Cowles (1937) have proved this, By achieving the goal through I the incentive satisfaction of the motive takes place. The goal or incentive varies with die nature of the drive. For hunger, food is the goal, for thirst water, sex mate and maternal-drive children, etc. are considered as goals.

A goal may be distant or near. It may be a long-range behavior sequence or a short-range behavior sequence or a short-range behavior sequence. Usually, near goals act as a better motivating factor than distant goals. In any process of motivation, we find this need, drive, and incentive (goal) sequence.

These three are indispensable for the process of motivation to operate and to be completed. Without a need, there cannot be a drive and without a drive, the behavior cannot be goal-oriented. Finally, without a goal or incentive, a motive cannot function successfully. Thus, it is aided by Hull that all learnings are purposive.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 4 Process of Thinking Long Answer Questions Part-2

Question 2.
Define the meaning and definition of emotion and describe the nature or characteristics of emotion.
Answer:
Emotion:
Meaning, operational definition, and nature of emotion:
The only child of a woman dies in a road accident. She is so disturbed by this, pathetic incident that she sits like a statue for days together, completely motionless. Then one day her dead body is found inside a well. An old man, at last, is ruined by his long-lost son. He just cries and cries, not out of misery but in happiness.

The first incident indicates emotions of sorrow, distress, and unhappiness, and the second one of happiness, joy, and pleasure. Thus, emotions take life interesting as well as distressing pleasant as well as unpleasant, and happy as well as unhappy, sometimes emotions bring distress and disaster in human life, disorganize, and disturb the entire life pattern.

At other times, it rebuilds functions and organizes activities. The emotion of love, happiness, and joy help in uniting and reuniting many friends, relations, couples, and marriage patterns. Without emotions, life would have been dull and colorless, devoid of charm. Emotions are also responsible for the finest human characteristics as well as for the most horrible and mean things in life. Emotion makes life pleasurable as well as miserable.

According, to Ruch (1970), “Emotions play a vital part in our motivational patterns. Life without emotion would be virtually a life without motion. Emotion has also organized and motivational values. When strong emotions arise strong motives are satisfied.” Emotion, a very complex and intricate psychological process has been a matter of discussion by, physiologists and psychologists for the last 100 years or more.

Emotion Defined:
It is quite difficult to give a comprehensive definition of emotion, which is a very complex and intricate psychological process. Different psychologists have defined emotion in several different ways. But the most appropriate definition of emotion so far is given by P.T. Young. According to him, “Emotion is an acute disturbance ofthe organism, as a whole, psychological in origin involving behavior, conscious experience, and visceral functioning.

An analysis of this definition points out four important characteristics of emotion:
Emotion is acute or strong in the body, unlike feelings in which the disturbance is mild. The whole body is strongly disturbed and agitated.
The disturbance due to emotion has always had a psychological origin. That is, a stimulus either external or internal always produces an emotional reaction.

Suppose the person saw a tiger in the forest and became afraid. This very fear is psychological in nature, and it introduces a stirred-up state. Thirdly, the disturbed state produced by an emotional experience creates bodily l changes which are physiological in nature. Physiological changes take place in the entire body system.

Finally, emotion is a conscious experience. The person facing the emotion-provoking situation must perceive it as significant. Then only emotion can be produced. The individual must be aware that the situation is such and such, that it is dangerous for him and hence should be avoided, and so on.

Nature And Characteristics of emotion:
The term emotion has been derived from the Latin word E-mover, which means to move to stir up, to agitate, to excite, and to arouse oneself. This arousal of self creates an art urge towards action. It is a very complex, disturbed state of the organism. That is why emotion has been defined as a stirred-up state of the organism.

The entire organism is disturbed both physiologically and psychologically, activated, and excited. Titchener defined emotion as an affected state of the organism. By affective state, he meant to say joy, sorrow, love, hatred, etc. Emotion has got both integrating and disintegrating roles in life.

According to Carr (1925) emotion is a form of energy mobilization. On a Scale of one end, there is a strong emotion and at the other end, no emotion or sleep will be there. This mobilization of energy helps the individual overcome an obstacle at the time of emergency situation like fear or anger.

The person sees a shake, immediately he is activated by tonnes of energy to run away from that place. Emotion is very brief. It starts very abruptly and ends soon after the incident is over Since emotion involves physiological changes, it disappears after the emotional outburst is over. Emotion deals with both physiological and psychological changes, both Objective and subjective aspects.

It has got feeling or covert aspects as well as overt or behavioral aspects. Some psychologists like McDougall have considered emotions as instincts. But this is only a historical and Controversial issue. Emotions occur as a reaction to some basic biological drives. When the basic needs are not satisfied, the person is frustrated.

For example, fear is associated with danger. Similarly, joy is felt when a long-cherished need is satisfied. Certain emotional experiences also help in the satisfaction of some biological needs. During anger, we are able to make use Of more energy in fighting the obstructing situation. Thus, emotions have biological values. Strong emotions help the individual tO be less sensitive to pain.

Question 3.
Discuss the common emotional patterns and describe the cause of fear. Prevention and Elimination.
Answer:
Common Emotional Patterns:
Fear:
As Bridges (1932) says, at first fear is generated more like a state of panic, and excitement than of any specific form. Gradually with the development of language, fear increases and is expressed in many other linguistic expressions than by crying alone. Fear appears clearly at the age of six months.

It is supposed to be a very early emotion and in most cases very dangerous for normal personality development. The arousal of fear depends upon different situations. Loss of support, the sudden approach of anything, or loud noise lead to inherent fears. A five-year-old child has a fear of dogs, doctors, machines, etc. death, fainting persons, dead bodies, being left alone, deep water, etc.

All these are not natural but acquired fears. Fear for animals and fire etc. occurs because of conditioning and habit, says Watson, children also may develop certain imaginative fears or symbolic fears like fear for rats, and spiders. Fear for the parents may be expressed in fear for the teacher who resembles a parent.

However, before the age of 5, symbolic fear does not arise. Fear for animals is more found in childhood, but for non-animals, it increases with age such as fear of disease, illness, dentists, and doctors. Boys usually show more fear towards school work and girls towards illness, disease, darkness, and night. The stimulus itself does not create fear, the way it is presented determines a fear, response.

Causes Of Fear:
Suggestion and imitation:
Dreadful stories narrated by the parents or grandparents, particularly at night cause dangerous fear in them. Mother suggests the baby certain feared objects like Ghost, Tiger, and Demon, and sleeps peacefully, while the baby spends the night with horrible experiences and nightmares without being able to sleep.

In a particular case, whenever the mother sees a rat she screams in fear as if she is facing a lion. The child at the early stage had no such fear of rats. But when he saw several times his mother screaming, at the sight of a rat, he also gradually developed this fear of rats. Most of our childhood fears are partly due to imitation and partly due to suggestion.

For Getting Attention:
One shows fear of getting attention also. In order to escape an unpleasant task or experience one develops a fear response.

Poor Training:
Overprotected and sheltered home life prevents emotional maturity. Wien the mother or other family members make it a point to accompany the child whenever he goes, wherever he goes, to protect him, in future he cannot go anywhere alone, let it be the latrine or bathroom. If we say, don’t go in the dark, you will fall down, don’t go alone, somebody will kidnap you. Don’t touch the switch, you will get shocked, don’t go to high places, you will fall down, and the child will be afraid of everything and every place.

Symbolic and Imaginary fears:
Phobias are of this type. To repress fear for one tiling, they show fear for other things, such fear for spiders, a bunch of hair, and small rats, which are mostly symbolic fears. Since these are harmless stimuli, one should not normally show fear of these stimuli. But when these objects stand for some other feared objects because of repression, such fears become unhealthy for normal personality development.

Unpleasant Dreams:
Dreams about ghosts, demons; dangerous animals give rise to various fears.

Prevention and Elimination of Fear:
Jones found two broad techniques for preventing fear.

  • social Imitation
  • Direct Conditioning

Social Imitation:
Just as fear develops by imitation, it can also be eliminated by imitation. Suppose the child is afraid of a cat. The mother or somebody whom the child loves, respects, and obeys, should bring the cat, hold it, and show the child in a gradual process that the cat is not harmful. Similarly, fear of different domestic animals, dark places, open places, high places, rivers, water, and crowdy places can be removed by imitation. Thus far can be removed by allowing the child to learn from others.

Direct Conditioning:
By associating the feared object with a stimulus that the child wants or desires to get, fear can be eliminated. By associating with a stimulus that the child likes or wants to get, say with a chocolate or ice cream or with the mother or some near and dear one the child’s fear can be eliminated. However, the prevention of fear by the conditioning method cannot be done in a day or two. It is a gradual and slow process, which requires patience, time, and understanding of the child, his current needs, and desires.

Fear can also be prevented by other techniques :
Prevention of useless and needless fear like goats or big fish. Many persons develop an aversion to fish or meat by visualizing the killing of these stimuli. This should be discouraged. The child must not be told or allowed to hear horrible and dreadful stories as they imagine these stories in reality and develop tremendous fears. Stories of ghosts and witches should be avoided completely.

Reconditioning of fear by gradually familiarising the child with the fearful object, say water or any animal. This has been discussed earlier. By having someone with whom he has got confidence. Fear of a dog increases when the child is taken to the dog by a stranger. But when he approaches the dog with his mother or father, the fear gradually subsides.

By introducing counter motives by presenting the feared stimulus with attraction and pleasant ones. Curiosity and heroism should be developed to avoid fear. A sense of curiosity is required to avoid symbolic fear. Security in the family decreases fear response (Jersild and Homes).

Verbal appeal and reassurance combined with practical demonstration reduce fear. By developing good health. Self-expression and self-criticism also reduce fear (Conn). Acquaintance with the environment. According to Slater, Beekwitn, and Behnke fear of the unfamiliar disappears as the child becomes acquainted with his environment.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 4 Process of Thinking Long Answer Questions Part-2

Question 4.
Define Anger and discuss the causes of treatment and jealousy.
Answer:
Anger:
Anger is said to be a negative emotion like fear. In the beginning, generalized undifferentiated and mass anger response is found. But gradually it is distinguished and differentiated. Anger is a more frequent emotional response in children than fear, as anger-provoking stimuli are more than fear-provoking stimuli in the child’s environment. When the natural desires and motives are not freely satisfied, but obstructed, anger is shown.

Causes of Anger:
The cause of anger is interference or restriction of any type or it may be due to frustration. This frustration may be due to personal, physical, or social causes. Ricketts has pointed out certain other causes of anger like conflict over playthings, conflict over toilet and dressing, interruption of interesting activities like pressurizing the child to leave play and study, etc.

Jones has found that in 3-5 years children’s anger is created over their daily toilet, habits, dressing, going to school, etc. But by and large, the main cause of anger both in children and adults is interference in the fulfillment of wishes and desires.

Treatment or Anger:
Checking or repression of anger is undesirable. Anger should be channelized in socially acceptable Ways rather than being suppressed, repressed, or restricted. In general, anger can be treated by obtaining a clear picture of all factors, removing the irritating factors which annoy the child, substituting a different goal, and redirecting its motives.

Jealousy:
Jealousy is an outgrowth of anger. It is an attitude of resentment directed towards other people only while anger can be directed towards people, self, and others. It is a negative emotion. The arousal of jealousy depends upon training and the treatment that one gets from others. Child-rearing practices have got a lot to do with the development of jealousy.

Clinical studies of jealousy in young children show that it is a common emotional experience, originating with the birth of younger siblings. Children also show jealousy towards parents, especially towards the father when they see him showing affection towards their mother. The characteristic expression of jealousy includes hurting others, reverting to infantile behavior like bed wetting, thumb sucking, and attention-catching.

In older people jealousy is directly expressed in verbal quarrels, gossiping, name-calling, and making sarcastic and taunting jokes. Jealousy is indirectly expressed in daydreams. Girls are found to be more jealous than boys as found by Foster. More Jealousy is found in children of higher intellectual levels.

Question 5.
Define the bodily changes and eternal expressions of emotion.
Answer:
Bodily changes from individual to individual. In spite of these variations, there are some common bodily changes, which can be divided into overt and covert, as external and internal bodily changes.

External Expressions of :
Facial Expression:
The face is the most expressive organ of the human body. It is thus said to be the barometer of emotion. The muscles in the forehead, head, around the eyes, nose, and mouth are used differently with each emotion. Facial expressions vary from emotion to In anger the facial expression is different than when one is happy or afraid or sony. But it is not always easy to judge accurately one’s emotions from these facial expressions, particularly of adults.

Besides, some do not show any definite pattern of facial expression for a particular emotion. Munn states that it is much easier to differentiate facial expressions of pleasant and unpleasant emotions than it is to differentiate expressions of specific emotions, say joy versus love or sorrow versus fear. In a study to relate the different facial expressions of emotion. Schlosberg (1952) obtained certain pictures of the same face posed to express different emotions.

These pictures were given to observe to sort out into one of the following six categories:

  • Love, happiness, mirth
  • Surprise
  • Fear, suffering
  • Anger, determination
  • Disgust
  • Contempt

Schlosberg found a high correlation in the judgments of different observers but found that in several cases pictures posed to express love were confused with those posed to express contempt. Nevertheless, looking at someone’s face we can say whether he is happy, angry, or afraid. The many parts of the face like eyes, nose, lips, cheeks, forehead, etc. reflect the emotional pattern of anger.

In joy, the eyes may shine. In grief, they get dimmed. In anger the face becomes red, and the nostrils may expand or contract, in happiness the bps may smile. The cheeks may be red in anger or when one blushes because of shyness. In fear, the mouth gets dry, the face is full of sweets, the body shakes and the hair stands.

Postural Reaction:
Different emotions arouse different postures. Fear involves flight violent anger involves not flight but aggressive movements, which may either be abusive or involve an actual attack. In grief we bow, we stiffen in anger, and we lean forward when we are anxious and expect something.

In the emotion of love, there is movement in the direction of the beloved. In sorrow, there is a general slumping posture while in joy the opposite is involved, i.e. the head is he Id high and chest out, and there is the movement of hands. Gestures as expressions of bodily changes are to what extent influenced by culture is not known.

The importance of postural reaction in emotional experience has been emphasized by James Lange’s theory. It holds that stimulations produced by assuming different postures contribute to the feeling aspect of emotion. For instance, it holds that if we put our hands on our cheeks and sit lowering our faces, we will feel sorry.

Vocal Expression:
Voice is a powerful organ for indicating different types of emotional experiences. The modulation of voice, change in loudness, and pitch may represent different types of emotion. A loud sound with enough variation in pitch indicates excitement, a rising inflection usually indicates a feeling of surprised doubt, and loud laughter indicates joy and happiness. A slow monotonous voice expresses defeat and dejection.

A higher pitch indicates anger. In anger the increase in body tension leads to more tension in the vocal cords which leads to a rise in voice, similarly, in fear there is suffering. Though the high pitch associated with anger is inborn these vocal expressions in most cases are also colored by cultural training. The word can be uttered differently to express different emotions. Say “COME” C…O…M…E‘come’.

Therefore from the verbal expression of a person, his emotional state can be easily detected in addition to his facial expression, postural and other reactions. Merry by recording the speaking and singing voices of actors and singers has shown how different emotions are expressed through them. In addition to these bodily expressions of emotion Ruch(1970) has stated four other emotional behavior patterns.

Destruction:
Destruction is found mostly in anger reactions. In anger, the most typical physical reaction is overt aggression or attack. The type of attack varies from culture to culture. In the case of uncivilized people, the attack is more of biting, hitting, shooting, and piercing with a knife. In the case of civilized people, the attack is more symbolic. This implies that in place of physical injury attack is made through language, i.e., sarcastic remarks, taunting words, abuses, etc.

Approach:
In happiness, joy, delight, pleasure, and love, the response made by the experiencing person can be said to be one of the approaches. The approach leads to further stimulation. Success in life produces elation. This is also an approach reaction. Even anticipation of success brings some pleasant emotion and ultimately an approach response.

Retreat or Flight:
The emotion erf fear, the typical bodily response observed universally is the flight from the emotion-provoking stimulus or retreat. By withdrawing from the fearful or dangerous situation the person saves himself. Flight is said to be the best medium of adjustment in dangerous situations.

In civilized people, the retreat may also be through symbols and withdrawal reactions like daydreaming. Ruch remarks “In civilized life, however, we often retreat symbolically through words, apologies, compromises, discussions, and various psychological mechanisms of withdrawal”.

Stopping of Response:
In sorrow, gloom, and depression, there is no destruction, no approach, no flight, but by and large a stop of unusual response. The person in such emotional experiences never shows any behavior. Even a strong stimulus does not bring any response in him.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 4 Process of Thinking Long Answer Questions Part-2

Question 6.
Discuss bodily or organic Or physiological changes in emotion.
Answer:
Bodily changes mean physiological changes. Because of the excessive activation of different organs during emotional states, physiological changes occur.
They are discussed below:

  • External expressions of emotion.
  • Physiological changes.
  • Glandular responses
  • The Galvanic skin responses
  • Pupillometrics
  • Gastro-Intestinal functions

External Expressions of Emotion:
Facial expression:
The face is the most expressive organ of the human body.

Postural Reaction:
Different emotions arouse different postures, fear involves a flight. Violent anger involves not flight but aggressive movements.

Vocal Expression:
Voice is a powerful organ for indicating different types of emotional experiences.

Physiological Changes:
In our day-to-day experience of emotion, we find the body undergoing various physiological changes like the rate of breathing increases, the rise of heart palpitation, sinking feeling in the stomach, general feeling of weakness, sweating, trembling, rise in blood pressure, and similar physiological changes.

The symptoms of fear reported by thousands of soldiers during the second world war are given below:

Some felt symptoms of fear of Violent
the pounding of the heart 86%
The sinking feeling in the stomach 75%
Feeling sick in the stomach 59%
Trembling and shaking 56%
Cold Sweat 55%
Tense feeling in my stomach 53%
The feeling of weakness and tenseness 51%
Vomiting (Quoted from Munn M.L. 1953) 24%

A large number of researches have been undertaken to objectively measure the physiological concomitants of emotion to discover how the different physiological processes change during emotion and whether there are different patterns of physiological change underlying specific emotions like fear, rage, and disgust.

In such studies changes in blood pressure, heart-best, and respiration are recorded during emotional states by different instruments. The activity of the heart during an emotional state is studied by examining the shape of the curve recorded by an electrocardiograph.

Glandular Responses:
Glands play an important role during different emotional states. In anger, the module of the adrenal gland secrets excessive amount of adrenaline and non-adrenaline and pours them into the bloodstream. Adrenaline is responsible for many characteristics of strong emotional experiences. The level of sugar in the blood rises because of excessive secretion of this hormone.

This increases heartbeat, and blood pressure increases due to the release of glycogen from the lever. The pulse rate also rises. Blood clots more quickly, more air enters the lungs, pupils enlarge and the body sweats profusely. The skin temperature also rises. Non-adrenaline constricts the blood vessels at the surface of the body as a result of which more blood is sent to other parts of the body.

Evidence also indicates the role of the thyroid and pituitary gland in emotional response. Research shows that adrenaline by itself may not necessarily arouse emotional experience or behavior. In a study done jointly by Cantril and Hunt (1932), 22 normal subjects were injected with adrenaline, 3 out of 22 reported unpleasant experiences, one pleasant experience, and ten no emotional experience, and the rest had different kinds of emotions.

Though subjects injected with adrenaline report that they feel as if they are going to have an emotional experience, they do not experience it. This suggests that in addition to adrenaline, probably emotion-provoking situations arid-related postural activities are necessary to produce emotional states.

The Galvanic Skin Response:
The galvanic skin response is measured with an apparatus called a psycho-galvanometer. It measures the electrical resistance in the skin; technically called electrodermal changes. These changes result from the activity of the sweat glands. The galvanic skin response associated with blood pressure and respiration is a highly sensitive objective indication that an emotional experience is taking place.

In addition to its presence in manual and mental work, its presence is evident in upsetting emotional conditions. According to Munn (1953), changes in the galvanometer following emotional stimulations are due to the lowering of electrical resistance between the two electrodes on the skin. Munn further adds that the GSR may be studied in terms of its latency, its amplitude, its duration, and some derivative of such indices.

Pupillometrics:
Pupillometry is a novel technique for measuring physiological changes during emotional studies. The pupil of the eye during emotional states dilates in response to stimuli that arouse a favorable reaction and contracts in response to unpalatable and disliked stimuli. Thus pupillometry is based on Darwin’s view of the eyes widening and narrowing during emotion.

In 1960, Eckhard Hess rediscovered this fact in an incidental observation. Hess made further laboratory study on this and found the size of the pupil changes with die favorable or unfavorable nature of the stimulus, which may be taste, sound, or sight. It is assumed that pupillometrices are of immense value in psychotherapy as a diagnostic tool, in particular.

By looking at pictures loaded with emotional complexes the patient can without his knowledge hint at the stresses in his personality. Precisely, the reactions of his eyes will reveal this. Pupillometrics can also be used in lie detection, as pupil contracts only to unpleasant stimuli.

Gastro-Intestinal Functions:
There is also a change in gastrointestinal functions during emotional behavior. Gastro¬intestinal functions are usually measured with the help of balloons inserted into the stomach or intestines. By observing the stomach directly gastric functions can also be measured. Munn (1953) has given an example of this connection.

The patient suddenly experienced fear one morning amid a phase of accelerated gastric function. An errata doctor entered the room muttering imprecations about an important protocol that had been lost. The patient had misled it and feared that he had lost the record and his job. He lay motionless on the table and his face became pale.

Prompt and decided pallor occurred also in his gastric mucosa, and associated with it there occurred a fall in the rate of acid production. A minute later the doctor found his paper and left the room. Forthwith the face and the gastric mucosa of the patient regained their former color”.

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CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 4 Process of Thinking Long Answer Questions Part-2

Question 7.
What is the motive? Describe biological motive.
Answer:
Motivational terms like line desire, wish aim, drive, purpose, goal-oriented activity, urge, incentive and so on which go to mean motive. All these motivational terms regulate the behavior of a person. Motivation is derived from the Latin word “movere” which means to move.

Types of motive:
Motivation has been classified by psychologists into some categories. These are:

  • Biological motives
  • Social motives
  • Psychological motives

We discussed the
Biological Motives:
The biological motives are rooted in the physiological state of the body, hunger, thirst, sex is the most obvious biological or physiological motives. They are physiological because they are associated directly with physiological systems. Other physiological motives include temperature regulation, sleep, pain avoidance, and a need for oxygen.

Hunger:
Earlier Experimental literature on hunger reveals that the source of hunger drive is stomach contractions. The experiments were simple. The observers used subjects who were trained to swallow small balloons with rubber tubes attached. The balloons were inflated in the stomach and the rubber tubes were connected to kymographs recording mechanisms.

Here each spasm of the stomach muscles could cause a mark on the smoked drum. On different occasions, the subjects were also asked to press the key when they felt hunger pangs. As a result, a mark was made on the drum just below the record of stomach activities. Further, the abnormal breathing of subjects was also recorded.

The investigator, here, could decide very well whether the spasms represented in the record were due to the stomach or abdominal movements. It was observed that the hunger pangs coincided with stomach contractions, but these pangs were not related to movements of the abdominal muscles. But the recent works on hunger reveal a different story.

The conclusions depict that the relationship between stomach contractions and hunger is weak. A joint venture of both psychologists and physiologists tried to find out some other conditions of the body which trigger hunger. Recent research also has shown that people report normal feelings of hunger even when the nerves from the stomach have been cut or the stomach has been entirely removed.

Physiologists believe that changes in the metabolic functions of the liver when fuel supplies are low provide the body’s stimulus for hunger. The liver can give a signal to the hypothalamus that more fuel is needed which triggers the hunger drive. Further experiments on the functions of the hypothalamus revealed that two regions of the hypothalamus are involved in the hunger drive-lateral hypothalamus and ventromedial area.

The lateral hypothalamus is the excitatory area. Animals eat when this area is stimulated. When this area is damaged, animals stop eating and die of starvation. On the other hand, the ventromedial area is located in the middle of the hypothalamus, which is otherwise known as the ‘ hunger-controlling area’. Experts consider this area as the inhibited region of the hunger drive.

Studies revealed that when this ventromedial area is dangered, animals develop voracious appetites. They went to take a huge amount of food and they also overeat. Experimental literature also reveals that cessation of eating or satiety is controlled by a hormone called Cholecystokinin (cck), which is released into the bloodstream when food reaches the intestine (Gibbs Smith, 1973).

Injections of cck into food-deprived rats who are eating causes them to stop eating and start grooming and other behaviors which are part of satiety in animals (Smith & Gibbs, 1976). But the role of ‘cck’ as a satiety hormone has been questioned. Both the hypothalamus and blood chemistry are, no doubt, responsible for hunger.

Thirst:
Thirst serves as a strong drive mechanism in both animals and humans. Humans can live for weeks without eating, but they can not live only for a few days without replenishing their supply of fluid. When human beings experience fluid deprivation, their mouths and throats become dry, cooling them to drink.

Previously it was believed that drinking is triggered by a dry mouth. But physiologists revealed that dry mouth does not result in enough drinking to regulate the water balance of the body. Thirst and drinking are controlled by processes within the body itself. Since maintaining the water level is essential for life itself.

The body has a set of complicated internal homeostatic processes to regulate its fluid level and drinking behavior. Our body’s water level is maintained by physiological events in which several hormones play a vital role. One of these hormones is the antidiuretic hormone (ADII). It regulates the loss of water through the kidneys.

Experts feel that thirst drive and drinking of water are mainly triggered by two mechanisms. The first one is that when the water level of the body goes down, certain neurons located within the hypothalamus begin to give out water. The thirst which results from this mechanism is known as “cellular dehydration thirst.”

Some experimental results also revealed that the loss of water from the cells in a particular region of the hypothalamus might initiate the drinking behavior. The experiments view that the neurons in the preoptic regions of the hypothalamus (Known as osmoreceptors) are responsible for controlling the drinking behavior of the organism.

Thirst triggered by the loss of water from the osmoreceptors is called “cellular-dehydration thirst”. The second mechanism which is responsible for triggering drinking behavior is known as t ‘hypovolemia’ or the condition of low blood plasma volume. Loss of water in the body results in hypovolemia or a decrease in the volume of the blood.

When blood volume goes down, so does blood pressure. The drop in blood pressure stimulates the kidney to release an enzyme called ‘renin’. This enzyme is involved in the formation of a substance known as ‘angiotensin’ which circulates the blood and may trigger drinking.

Sex Drive:
Partially sexual behavior depends on physiological conditions. So it may be considered a biological motive. But sexual motivation is far more than a biological drive. Sexual motivation is social because it involves other people and provides the basis for social grouping in higher animals.

Sexual behavior is powerfully regulated by social pressures and religious beliefs. Sex is psychological because it is an important part of our emotional lives. It can provide intense pleasure, but it can also give us agony and involve us in many difficult decisions. Till now, physiologists are trying to find out the exact location of the internal control of the sexual drive.

No doubt, the intensity of sexual urges is dependent upon chemical substances circulating in the blood known as sex hormones. Studies confirmed that this urge is profoundly influenced by the presence of hormones produced by tests in males and ovary cases of human beings, socio-cultural and emotional factors seem to play pivotal roles.

Sleep:
Sleep is a basic necessity of life. About one-third of our life is spent sleeping. It is a dramatic alteration of consciousness and it also happens spontaneously. The ordinary fluctuations in consciousness are part of the rhythmic. All creatures in this world are influenced by nature’s rhythms.

Human beings are at least a time cycle known as circadian rhythms. These rhythms are bodily patterns that repeat approximately every 24 hours. About one-third of the circadian rhythm is devoted to the period of energy-restoring rest called sleep. The most significant discovery after EEG technology in sleep research was that of rapid eye movement (REM).

These are the bursts of quick eye movements under closed eyelids, occurring at periodic intervals during sleep. The time when a sleeper is not showing REM is known as non-REM or NREM sleep (NREM). Dreams are possible during REM sleep. But NREM reports were filled with brief descriptions of ordinary daily activities, similar to waking thoughts.

Research evidence indicated that over the course of the night, our sleep cycle crosses several stages, each of which shows a distinct EEG pattern. It takes about 90 minutes to progress through the first four stages of sleep (NREM sleep). The first period of REM sleep last for about 10 minutes. In a night’s sleep, an individual passes through this 100-minute cycle four.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 4 Process of Thinking Long Answer Questions Part-2

Question 8.
What are social motives?
Answer:
Social motives are otherwise known as secondary motives. These are also known as acquired learned motives. These motives are complex in nature. Social motives are called secondary because they involve interaction with others and are learned due to social conditioning in a social context.

Need for affiliation:
Seeking other human beings and waiting to be close to them both physically and psychologically is called affiliation. It refers to keeping contact with other people, in other words, affiliation refers to the need that people have to be with others. This motive is aroused when individuals feel helpless or threatened and also when they are happy.

Research findings indicate that fear and anxiety are closely related to affiliation motives. Where the degree of anxiety and threat is very high, such affiliation behavior is often absent. Studies also revealed that early learning experiences influence this motive. The first-born or the only child in the family had stronger affiliation motives than those bom later.

Studies have also shown that children who are brought up to be dependent or raised with closed family ties show a stronger affiliation motive than those coming from more closely-knit families which encourages early independence. Cultural differences were also found. Affiliation needs are stronger in some cultures than in others.

Need for Power:
The need for power is an independent motive. It expresses itself in behaviors, which tend to control and influence the course of events including the behaviors of others. History reveals that mankind has always struggled for power. Power was desired by the individuals as an instrument to satisfy other motives like aggression, greed, affiliation, etc. But in recent years, emphasis has been placed on the power motive as independent in itself. This view was emphasized by McClelland.

In his theory, David Me Clelland (1975) has expressed that power motivation can be revealed in four general ways:

People do things to gain feelings of power and strength from sources outside themselves. For example, children express power motivation by reading stories. Individuals gain strength fry reading the activities of past leaders. People do things to gain feelings of power and strength from sources within themselves.

For example, a college student may express power motivation by building up the body and by mastering urges and impulses. People do things to have an impact on others. For example, an individual may argue with another individual or may have a competitive attitude in order to influence that person. People do things as members of organizations to have an impact on others.

For example, the leader of a political party may use the principles of his party or an army officer may express the need for power through the chain of command to influence others. Studies reveal that for any individual, one of these ways of expressing power motivation may dominate. But a combination of power motives can not be ruled out.

With age and life experiences, the dominant mode of expression often changes. Studies have also shown that women seem to have less strong needs for power than men. They choose indirect ways to impact and influence. For example, women prefer to express their power motivation by being counselors, advisors, and resource persons for other people.

Depending on motive:
Shortly speaking dependency refers to interpersonal relationships where an individual behaves in a way in order to gain attention, assistance, comfort, and support from fellow men. For example, children use to spend more time with parents or intimate friends in difficult situations. People appear to be more dependent on social interactions and approval. Studies reveal that girls and women tend to be more dependent and affiliative than boys. In stress, people want to resort to dependency.

Co-operation motive:
Co-operation is an acquired motive. Moreover, it is a condition manifested when two or more individuals or groups work together to achieve a common goal. It signifies a lack of mutual disagreement and opposition among fellow group members and the absence of rivalry. Research evidence indicates that the citizens of Zuni of New Mexico are found to be extremely cooperative.

Being wealthy in Zuni brings no status. Status is derived not from power, but from friendship. A happy and successful Zuni has many friends. Different studies on altruism among children provide evidence that helping behavior can be fostered through the use of models (Paulson, 1974).

Conformity motive:
Conformity refers to the tendency to allow one’s opinions, attitudes, actions, and even perceptions to be affected by prevailing opinions, attitudes, actions, and perceptions. Very often people act in ways consistent with the majority. This tendency to ‘go along with the group is popularly known as behavioral conformity.

Changes in attitude and belief also take place due to pressures from others. It is known as ‘ attitudinal conformity’. There is also conformity of personality traits i.e. underlying characteristics of a person changes according to the norms of society. With the help of a conformity curve, F.H. Allport (1935) described the conformity motive phenomena.

He related that most people exhibit complete conformity to social norms with fewer and fewer people having deviations. Our submissiveness to social influences is due to conformity motives to the norms of the society in which we live. Norms refer to behavior that is usual or expected, acceptable, and socially prescribed.

Points to remember:

Question 1.
Define the meaning and definition of thinking.
Answer:
Thinking is a very often used psychological term in our daily life. The importance of thinking is evident not only for the wide use of the term but also because thinking helps in the solution of all our day-to-day problems. Thinking is the most complex of all psychological processes and it is thinking that normally differentiates man from lower animals.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Psychology Unit 4 Process of Thinking Long Answer Questions Part-2

Question 2.
Define the sensory-motor period.
Answer:
Sensory-Motor Period.
The sensory-motor period is the period that starts before the language development of the child. Piaget distinguished between two major stages in cognitive development i.e. sensory-motor intelligence (0-2 years) and conceptual intelligence (0-to Maturity). During the sensory-motor period, the child’s adaptations and activities do not involve extensive use of symbols or language.

Question 3.
Describe the stages of cognitive development by Piaget.
Answer:
Piaget is a development theorist who believes that cognitive development occurs gradually phase by phase.
Piaget has divided the entire period of cognitive development into four basic stages.

  • A sensorimotor period is 0-2 years approximately.
  • Preoperalionalperiod 2-7years approximately.
  • The concrete operational period is 7-12 years approximately.
  • The formal operational period is 12 years above approximately.

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